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#121290 09/14/05 01:26 PM
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Hello again, Everyone,

[As a preface before my post, let me say that my central question here is whether Rome allows the Eastern teaching of a real distinction between the divine essence and energies, or has instead defined against this teaching.]

As most of you probably know, the Eastern Christian theological tradition by and large holds, as one of its most essential teachings, that there is a real distinction (although a distinction that does not destroy divine simplicity) in God between His divine essence and His divine energies. To put it very roughly, the divine energies are uncreated "manifestations" of God "around" the divine essence; God is fully present in each of his energies, and it is through these uncreated energies that we become partakers of the divine nature and become deified. The divine essence, on the other hand, is infinitely beyond being, infinitely incomprehensible and unable to be participated in by any creature. This is a teaching most clearly defined by St. Gregory Palamas, though traces of it go back to Gregory of Cyprus, St. Photius, St. Maximus the Confessor, and even St. Athanasius and the Cappadocians. That said...

What do we do with the following definition of doctrine by Pope Benedict XII (made in 1336, in "Benedictus Deus"): "By this Constitution which is to remain in force for ever, we, with apostolic authority, define the following: . . . [The souls in heaven] have seen and see the divine essence with an intuitive vision and even face to face, without the mediation of any creature by way of object of vision; rather the divine essence immediately manifests itself to them, plainly, clearly and openly, and in this vision they enjoy the divine essence . . . Also the souls of those who will die in the future will see the same divine essence and will enjoy it before the general judgment." Particularly problematic is the idea that we see the divine essence "face to face" and "immediately . . . plainly, clearly and openly." Is there some way that someone sees of making this compatible with the Eastern theological tradition?

As a preliminary to discussion, I'll note that the decree does say that the souls see the divine essence "without mediation of any creature" (emphasis added) and that the divine essence "manifests" itself, but I'd be cautious about being too hasty with this. Someone might seize on those words and say, "That's where it allows the Eastern doctrine! For the Eastern doctrine holds that the mediation of the divine essence occurs not through any creature, but through the uncreated energies, and it is through those very uncreated energies that the divine essence 'manifests' itself." I'd agree that that's a charitable way of looking at those two phrases alone, but in context I don't know if that works, because we have to note, again, that the divine essence is supposedly seen "face to face" and, perhaps more importantly, "immediately;" in this vision, what the souls in heaven "enjoy" is "the divine essence."

So, what do you think? Am I reading this too literally? Am I wrong that an Eastern interpretation doesn't work? Is there some other way of looking at this?

Thanks in advance, and God bless,
Jason

#121291 09/14/05 01:43 PM
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My best advice is to avoid this one for the next while. It's a highly complicated matter and difficult even for specialists. But if you can't resist, start reading Palamas - and be prepared to find it rough going.

Incognitus

#121292 09/18/05 05:55 PM
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Quote
Originally posted by Ecce Jason:
Hello again, Everyone,

[. . .]

Is there some way that someone sees of making this compatible with the Eastern theological tradition?

[. . .]
I personally do not see how the two positions can be reconciled.

#121293 09/18/05 10:30 PM
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Quote
Originally posted by Ecce Jason:
Hello again, Everyone,

[As a preface before my post, let me say that my central question here is whether Rome allows the Eastern teaching of a real distinction between the divine essence and energies, or has instead defined against this teaching.]

Jason
listen and understand.

Eastern theology is Eastern theology (a foundation of the Greek language within Greek culture right when the early church had adopted Greek as it universal language and most of the movers and shakers in the church were - Greek thinkers)

Western theology is Western theology (a foundation in the Latin language within the Latin culture of Rome one ancient Rome became a serious new frontier for the church)

Both - arose from Semetic theology. Both developed in specialized ways - according to the needs of a portion of the church to explain the gospel and church theology - to peoples of different language and cultures.

So the underlying theology is - the same - but the expression of it - is different according to language and culture.

Eastern / Western.

Both theologies (and keep in mind when we say �theology� we are by necessity speaking of - expression (language and symbols) further developed - within the cultures in which they were used.

You can not take the early Greek language - and the Latin language - and squash them together - and expect to have somehow made both languages - the same language.

You can not take Eastern theology - and Western theology - and some how squish them together - and try to made - one - same - theology.

It - is - impossible. Just as impossible as trying to say that the German languages is the same thing as the French language.

The fact remains (after the mental gymnastics that makes one dizzy) that they - are not - the same - language.

The first theology of the church was Hebrew theology (that is what Jesus was - a Hebrew) and it was spoken in Aramaic - and used the language of cosmology (the form of philosophy at the time). So it is filled with parables (the language of natural images).

As the church grew - and Greek began to be used as its universal language - the Greek �fathers� adopted the current form of the Greek language as used by Greek philosophy - to translate Semitic theology - into the Greek mind.

A Greek man named Origen - did most of the transformation from Semetic to Greek. He was considered to be absolutely brilliant by the Greeks of the church - everyone read his works and attended his lectures - and then when they learn all they could from him - they turned on him and called him a heretic. The students - turn on the teacher. The son murders his father the king - in order to take his throne. A typical theme of Greek myth and tragedy plays - it was a Greek cultural tendency. Fighting among the sons and the murder of their father. Arguments among the students for first place and the discrediting and overthrow of the teacher.

Eastern theology (and again - theology is the form of its expression and not the substance of its teaching) reached its peak within the culture of the Byzantine Empire - where - it became the language of the educated - the language of science and law - among the great schools of the Byzantine Empire - where Greek was the natural language.

Concurrently - as the church was also growing quickly within another culture (the Latin culture of Rome) where Greek was not well understood and Latin was the natural language - - - the Earlier from of Eastern expression of theology (using early forms of the Greek language) was transferred to - the Latin language and its culture. Just as the Greek fathers had used the Greek language of Greek philosophy to express Semetic concepts - the church in Latin speaking cultures adopted the Latin language as used by Latin philosophers - to express itself.

So both - churches - did the same thing. They adopted the natural language and concepts of the peoples that they were trying to give the gospel - to.

Latin theology (again - we say that because of the use of the Latin language and culture concepts used to express it) developed (just as the Eastern Greek did) and became pretty solid - also.

And so both expressions of the same contents - developed in isolation from each other (communication was difficult as the internet had not yet been invented J ) to the point where neither Church was well versed in what the other was saying - anymore. So - they argued - and miscommunicated - and got prideful and judgmental on the other - and eventually a tug of war took place as to who would be top dog of the entire church - the Byzantine Emperor (new Rome) or the Bishop of Rome (Old Rome). And the great separation took place along the lines of the split of the Roman empire.

Now - back to the Eastern Expression of theology and the Western expression of theology.

To understand Eastern theology correctly - one must grasp the concepts of Greek philosophy (in its peak) fairly well. For Eastern theology - adopted the terms of Greek philosophy - for its use. We are taking pre-Aristotle - and more what is called today - Neoplatonism - in as much as that name expresses the state of Greek philosophy about the time of Plato.

To understand Western theology - one should grasp Aristotle and Augustine - and them on to Thomas Aquinas.

In other words - each form of theology must be understood with in its own - context of historical time /culture / base language / and current from of philosophy.

Now if you wanted to learn the German language and the French language - you would not go to school and take both classes at once - in the same room - at the same time - while both the German teacher and the French teaching were speaking - at the same time. You might learn some - of both - but you would eventually get confused and cross them up together - and wind up learning neither - well.

So learn one (take your time and do the background reading to learn the culture in which it was formed) and then - learn the other.

If you do that - you will understand both fairly well and fined they compliment each other and do not disagree with each other. If you do not do that - you will be amoung those who - think they understand both - yet understand neither. And find yourself thinking you are forced to pick one as �right� and the other as �wrong�. Or - not wanting to do that (and you should not have to do that) you will try gymnastices to squish them both into a languge agreement - and actually be trying to form yet - another - theology from the two.
A �Franco-German� language (in our example). Now you should be able to see the non-sense - of that. No one will ever agree on that - neither the Germans nor the French because it would bend both languages in foolish ways.

Now - back to Rome - you second misconception - is that Rome �allows� or �disallows� anything - to Eastern theology.

Eastern theology (as I have described it) has been approved through early Councils - and it has not changed in essense - or even much in expression (except it is spoken in English a lot now instead of Greek) - so what - is to dis-allow?

Also - Eastern theology belongs to the Eastern churches - and Rome (since the voluntary separation of some of the Eastern churches from unity with the Latin churches) does not violate the independence of the Eastern churches.

Each church (Eastern and Latin or Western) has the independent right - to its own expression of theology.

Any cooperation with Rome - on these matters - is entirely voluntary. Rome has jurisdiction over - Rome. The Vatican Patriarch is Patriarch and head bishop over - the Latin church - and not over any other church. The Eastern Patriarates are head bishops over their own independent churches - and have no jurisdiction over - the Latin churches.

So Rome has no authority over the expression of Eastern theology - except when (many moons ago) the Eastern churches voluntarily gave the bishop of Rome that authority - when Eastern theology was approved in Ecumenical Councils which were approved by the Pope of Rome. So that phase - was all done - before the separation took place. Exactly how that Eastern theology further developed after the separation - is for the Eastern churches - and not proper to Rome. Exactly how Roman theology developed from Eastern theology - is for Rome - and not for the Eastern churches.

Now - on to the last subject - your question regarding - uncreated energies.

Each expression of theology make use of some words and phrases - in metaphorical ways.

The phrase �uncreated energies� makes sense in the context of Eastern theology. Certainly it is clear that energies - to be energies - must be created (if they are not created they are no-thing). So in the phrase �uncreated energies� the term �uncreated� negates the term �energies�. � indicating that it is �like� energies - but is not - energy. We are to imagine something that is like the energies we experience in the world - but is not the same as the energies about us.

All human words - come to us from our sense experience of the created world. As such - they are not appropriate to express something that is not a part of the created world and our sense experiences. So philosophy and theology - use them (it must) as images and symbols - of something else. And do so in an inappropriate use of words.

Both expressions of theology do this. A metaphorical use of some terms. And Jesus did this himself very often - in Jewish parables - similes - and metaphors. After all - no one should really think that Hell is under the crust of the earth in subterranean tunnels - nor that heaven is a place of time and location off in some other dimension. So it is very clear that - at times - theology is spoken in terms that have a symbolic meaning. Shall we think that Hell actually has physical fire?? Of course not. It is symbolic of - emotions and the way fire and unbearable heat feels to our senses.

Natural, physical, and material images - are used to indicate - that which is not physical nor material.

So it is easy to misunderstand these phrases - unless - you are aware of their use within the particular cultures, language, history, and human experience - in which they were coined. And it has been the thorn of all theology that some �theologians� will only grasp a literal meaning (having no background to grasp the metaphorical meaning that was intended) and pass broken judgment on the theology that he has absolutely no authority (let alone understanding) - of. And by doing that he perpetuates rumor which amounts to slander - and places himself above the structure of the episcopate which God assigned to the church - and by that dames the unity of the church.

Now, I would think, that anyone in their right mind, would be a bit fearful of passing such a judgment - where he has no right to judge. But pride - and self importance - fog the brains of some men - and we are all works in progress - so - much will be forgiven - and we all will eventual see things we did that we will be regretful for in front of God. So I would not take these arguments over the semantics of theology - too seriously. Nor would I take theologians too seriously.

When reading theology - take what helps you toward God - and ignore as �too hard to understand� whatever does not seem yet to assist you toward God.

After all - God did not put you here to learn theology - he put you here to pay attention to your conscience in the midst of the events which he arranges for you each day.

When you gate to the gates of heaven - believe me! - you will not be quizzed on - theology. And if you find yourself in a line with a bunch of theologians - I would be a bit concerned and - run!

It is not your intelligence that is tested - it is your heart.

>What do we do with the following definition of doctrine by Pope Benedict XII
Make and effort to understand it within the context of the Latin expression of theology and do not confuse it with the Eastern expression of theology. If you can do that you will come to find that there is no disagreement as you suppose. Both - are saying the same thing - and neither should be taken literally. There is no such thing as uncreated energies and God does not have a face.

Take each form of theology in its own context and do not try to mesh them together on the level of words. They are not the same langauge.

-ray


-ray
#121294 09/20/05 12:56 PM
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Dear Ray:

BRAVO! You stated and expressed everything beautifully. If only all in both Churches could read and understand everything you said and realize we were all made differently. That we must be taught to open our hearts to Him in ways that we can understand.

Problem is most people don't want to. They draw a curtain called 'pride' over their mind so that differences become 'anathema'.

Zenovia

#121295 09/20/05 03:54 PM
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I came to a similar conclusion some time ago, though not as complete as brother Ray, I'm not adept to such deep thought...I think.

james

#121296 09/20/05 04:36 PM
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Dear Rayk,

Excellent - but you understate the influence of "Rome" over Eastern theology.

Granted, it was not Rome directly that Latinized our seminaries and our overall way of thinking.

It was the local RC authorities, for various reasons, that did this.

Ultimately, we do not have ONE single Latinization from Rome itself - they all came from local Latin authorities, seminaries and even overt policies.

And before Rome accepted St Gregory Palamas as a saint - Hesychasm was equated with Quietism in the West and the Synod of Zamosc, influenced by Latinization, even proscribed the celebration of his festival.

For too long, EC's have not been think, as Fr. Lypsky said, with "their own" heads.

Alex

#121297 09/20/05 06:54 PM
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Dear Alex,
You write: "Granted, it was not Rome directly that Latinized our seminaries and our overall way of thinking."

Fond though I am of the Peaceable Kingdom, I shall grant no such thing. I suggest reading the history of what went on for centuries at the Pontifical Greek College (which produced several of the hierarchs of the Kyivan Church).

peaceably yours,

Incognitus

#121298 09/21/05 11:35 AM
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Dear Incognitus,

Well, I was quoting Fr. Bohdan Lypsky and if he was wrong, he's not around to retract anything . . .

What could I read about that matter? Any references that I could obtain?

Alex

#121299 09/21/05 03:03 PM
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Dear Incomparable Incognitus,

Actually, Fr. Lypsky, of blessed memory, was right insofar as he was only discussing the UGCC in his talk.

As for the Greeks, they should have known better to begin with . . . wink

Alex

#121300 09/21/05 03:56 PM
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Dear Alex,
I may be mistaken, but I seem to remember an article by Fr Peter Galadza, of the Institute in Ottawa, discussing the negative influence of the Pontifical Greek College in those days. Check his articles in back issues of Logos.

Incognitus

#121301 09/21/05 03:59 PM
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Dear Incognitus,

You mean my relative?

He never tells me anything, that fellow . . . wink

You know him, do you?

I wonder if there's anything he could tell me about some things I've been wondering about for some time now . . . wink

No fear!

Alex

#121302 09/22/05 12:30 AM
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Dear Alex,
Well, I read Logos, so I suppose I could say that I know the writers in the same sense that, having read Joseph Ratzinger assiduously for the past 35 years or so, I could say that "I know Ratzinger" - meaning, in both cases, the published work of these people. But in cases where the people are still living, that use of words is so ambiguous as to be deceptive.
Incognitus

#121303 09/22/05 10:04 AM
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Dear Incognitus,

Well, I have a letter from the Pope's secretary thanking me for the akathist to Pope John Paul II.

Not everyone has one of those, you know! wink

Happy St Joachim and Anna's Day! (ATEJC) "according to the True, er, Ju-lian Calendar!)

Alex

#121304 09/22/05 03:33 PM
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Dear Ray,

Thank you for your obviously well-thought-out response to my questions. Your reply was lengthy, so I will not address every concern or expression you raise therein, but I do have some concerns that I feel need to be mentioned. Forgive the time it has taken for me to respond -- I did not notice that this thread was still active.

You make an argument that is essentially identical to one I see here quite often, namely:

Quote
You can not take the early Greek language - and the Latin language - and squash them together - and expect to have somehow made both languages - the same language.

You can not take Eastern theology - and Western theology - and some how squish them together - and try to made - one - same - theology.
My response would simply be that I am not attempting to do either of these things. I am not looking for one theology. I am certainly granting that the two theologies are different, and are not one and the same. However, this is a different question than the question of whether or not they are compatible. I am looking for two compatible (i.e., not inconsistent) theologies.

And this, I think, is the crucial problem with the line of argument in your response. You are right that French and German are not the same language; I don't claim that they are. You are mistaken, however, if you are suggesting that the languages cannot be translated into one another, or if you are suggesting that a French speaker cannot eventually, through study, understand a German speaker. When it comes to theology, I am perfectly happy, as you are, to admit that different expressions developed in the East and the West, and often those differences were the results of different languages and cultures. However, I am not concerned with having the same expressions -- no one requires that. What I am concerned with is making sure that the referents of those expressions -- i.e., the theological content that is expressed -- is the same. To give an example, if an English speaker points to an apple and says, "Apple," and a Spanish speaker points to an orange and says, "Manzana [Apple]," the fact that the Spanish speaker is saying something equivalent to what the English speaker is saying does not prevent him from (mistakenly) expressing something entirely different and incompatible with what the English speaker is expressing. They are referring to different objects; only one of them is correct, the other is wrong. My concern is to make sure the same thing is not happening in theology.

This is why it is illegitimate to (implicitly) suggest that it is wrong-headed to ask the kind of questions that I am asking or to attempt to spell out where the compatibility between the two traditions lies, if there is in fact some such compatibility. If one understands Latin theology, and one understands Greek theology, and one understands the referents of those respective theologies, the fact of translation implies that one can compare and contrast them and determine if there is a real disagreement or not (though by saying this I am not attempting to suggest that I have a full and complete understanding of any of the above things). The underlying presupposition of your argument seems to be the false one that it is impossible for two sides with differing languages and cultures to actually disagree; I don't see any reason for believing that. This would seem to make translation an impossible enterprise. Furthermore, you seem to assume that all theological differences are really culutural and linguistic differences, but I don't see why that assumption has to be necessarily granted here. Where's the argument for it?

Finally, you seem to suggest that I might lack understanding of the issues, but I'm not sure why. I have quite a bit of familiarity with Platonism and Neoplatonism, as well as Aristotelianism and some of Augustine and Aquinas (I'm a graduate student in philosophy, if that matters). I also have a decent amount of familiarity with Eastern theologians like Maximos the Confessor and Gregory Palamas. I know Latin and I know some moderately decent amount of (Attic) Greek. Assuming I am understanding things correctly, why, then, can I not make a comparison between them and possibly discover that they are incompatible? It is one thing to say that I might be wrong about that conclusion (although I'm not sure I've even made that claim in the first place), but another thing to suggest that such an idea is just impossible.

I have one last comment about what you have said about the uncreated energies. It is not at all clear to me that you are right when you say that energies, to be energies, must be created. You say "if they are not created they are no-thing." Is this something you're suggesting as a principle? If so, I don't know what your support for it is. The hypostases of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are also uncreated, yet I wouldn't say they are nothing (unless by "no-thing" you mean something entirely different that I don't quite understand). The goodness of God is uncreated, yet it does not seem to be "no-thing." In other words, I don't see any reason for granting your assumption. Furthermore, if the energies really are created as you say, then it seems that Gregory Palamas is just wrong, and I don't think you wish to suggest that. His point in saying that the energies were uncreated was that, if they were created, then we could not really be divinized or become "partakers of the divine nature," because our union in theosis would be with another created thing, not with something divine. He seems, therefore, to really believe (as I do) that they are uncreated. (And without digressing too much, I also think the notion of uncreated energies is central to Maximos the Confessor's defense of the two wills in Christ and free will in the eschaton).

In closing, I agree that human words do not express everything completely; I don't think I suggested they did. However, from this it does not follow that they do not express things partially or at least serve some legitimate purpose. If expressions did not matter at all, there would be no councils with dogmatic definitions. If expressions could not be mistaken, there would be no anathemas for anyone who "says otherwise." Some expressions do matter and do really say different things. That is the mindset I'm operating with. I would be cautious to dispute it.

Thanks again, and God bless,
Jason

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