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#236752 05/26/07 12:01 PM
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I just heard an explanation of the Second Council at Lyon on EWTN, and I have to admit that I am very troubled. I never realized that I had to belive certin things like The supremacy of the Roman Church over all other Churches (yes and the word Church was used) and that only unleavened bread can be used for Mass. My question is this: If I accept the fact that the rites are equal and because of that it is OK to use leavened bread for the Divine Litury, am I in violation of the Second Council of Lyon? I know that this question seams to be trivial but I would like to know

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Here are the canons of the Second Council at Lyon: http://www.geocities.com/Heartland/Valley/8920/churchcouncils/Ecum14.htm

I dont find nor the norm about the unleavened bread, not the statement about the supremacy of the Roman Church over all other Churches

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Not all acts of councils are infallible nor are they irreformable.
Laws can be established for certain times and then susspended when reasons allow or dangers are over. For example being forbidden to have your remains cremated.
Stephanos i

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When I once told my Greek-Catholic grandmother, a presbytera, that Roman Catholics cross themselves with their whole hand without joining the three fingers for the Trinity etc., she would always tell me, "They just don't know any better!" smile

Ever since then, I just applied that statement to many other things about the RC Church that were different from what the Eastern Churches practice . . . smile

Alex


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