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How does "us" in the Creed explicitly say that women are saved? What if the only people at worship are men? Then "us" takes on a new meaning. Eddie Or what if it's during a presbyteral/clergy days gathering?
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Fr. David,
Thanks for responding in this forum. I appreciate that responding and listening to us may represent a challenge.
I want to share my view and thoughts on this whole inclusive language issue:
It is my perception that the majority of Byzantine Catholics would have been satisfied not to have inclusive language introduced into the liturgy. It therefore seems to me to be a miscalculation on the part of the liturgical committee and our Bishops that we needed it.
I can't help but sense that the committee and our Bishops were out of touch with most Byzantine Catholics when the decision to introduce inclusive language into the liturgy. That is why it feels to some of us like a accommodation to political correctness and the broader culture.
I appreciate the challenge that not every one can be pleased and happy.
But I truly feel that the inclusive language changes were unwarranted, unnecessary and undesired by most of us.
Which begs the question- what decisions would have truly have honored the sensibilities of our people?
Sincerely,
Lance Goldsberry
Last edited by lanceg; 05/26/07 12:04 PM.
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Sorry, I have another question. I favor some inclusive language because it is right and just that occasionally we should say explicitly that women as well as men are saved. The Council of Hierarchs has made this same decision. Their decision is magisterial for our church. Is the position regarding inclusive language the official or even unofficial position at the seminary? If so is "academic" dissent on this issue permitted there?
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Sorry, yet another. Their decision is magisterial for our church. What can it possibly mean to have a magisterial decision, for a sui juris Church, in regard to particular words which are not permitted to be used under certain circumstances, and especially when this contradicts the ordinary magisterium of the Universal Church?
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It is certainly not my intention to �pour gasoline on the fire,� but it seems the only way to avoid this result would be to agree unequivocally to oppose any inclusive language. Some members have judged this decision a priori. A big problem in this discussion is that the two sides do not share a common vocabulary, and a priori judgements have been made. I, for instance, am 100% in favor of inclusive language. The issue, however, is that I happen to believe firmly, backed by standard, accepted English usage*, that �Mankind� and �men� are inclusive. So for me this is not a debate about inclusive language, it is about the proper translation of the words which until RDL were rendered as �men� and �Mankind.� If these is an a priori blind spot, it is perhaps foremost on the part of those who would impose a counterfeit inclusive language on others, altering accepted liturgical language when there is no demand or necessity or need to do so. There has been a lot of outrage expressed here over the men/Mankind change. Sound theological, linguistic and stylistic arguments have been presented in opposition; letters are being sent to Pittsburgh, Rome, Constantinople and elsewhere; some feel they are being driven from BCC. Even those who defend the RDL version say they would have preferred a different translation (at least for Mankind)! Why then do we have what we have? Why couldn't men/Mankind (at the least) just have been left as is? Dn. Anthony * http://www.yourdictionary.com/ahd/m/m0069600.html
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I can't blame many of you for continuing to search for an explanation from Father David regarding inclusive language. But I think that the reason for continuing to ask him this question is because the answers he's given are not acceptable to those who are not on the inclusive language train. He's pretty much spelled out his thoughts on this forum and I'll post them again: Separate from these issues, I would add a persoanl reflection. I have become convinced that the reason "men" was used in the English language to mean both "men" and "women" is that before the 20th century, "women" simply had no standing in the body politic of "mankind." They did not vote and were not expected to take part in public affairs, therefore, their status was "meaningless." In the context of the late 18th century, therefore, the statement "All men are created equal" means exactly what it says. https://www.byzcath.org/forums/ubbthreads.php/ubb/showflat/Number/225621/page/1/fpart/8#Post226221I don't know how I'm not supposed to assume that secularism and feminism have crept into our liturgy and church? But, he's been open and straight forward in his answers and has given us insight into how an individual on the commission arrived at his conclusions. Monomakh
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I gave a lot of thought to that comment by Fr. David when he posted it, trying to figure out his logic. Finally I gave up figuring I must be reading it wrong: It seems to say he is convinced that ... "men" was used in the English language to mean both "men" and "women" ... during the 20th century and after! Dn. Anthony
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My position has been clear from the beginning - I favor some inclusive language because it is right and just that occasionally we should say explicitly that women as well as men are saved. The Council of Hierarchs has made this same decision. Their decision is magisterial for our church. Thank you for responding Father: May I be so humble as to correct you Father. It is right and just that we should "ALWAYS" say explicitly that women as well as men are saved--unless we are referring to specific male individuals or groups. That being said, your comment continues to baffle me. I am now beginning to wonder if the council of Hierarchs truly believed that usage of words such as "men" and "mankind" implied that women were not saved! This seems ludicrous to me. I know that you cannot speak for the council Father, but is this your mindset? Could it be possible that all Christians including the saints and Church Fathers of our beloved Catholic Church dating back to the 1st century, in essence, were male chauvinists? You also indicate that words such as "men" and "mankind" as used to include all human beings, was indeed an issue with some people in our Church. Are you saying that there were considerable complaints before the translation was reformed? I am looking forward to continued discussion and insight into an issue which seems to be dividing our Church. Recluse
Last edited by Recluse; 05/29/07 08:34 AM.
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Dear Recluse,
I too am looking forward to this discussion - but it doesn't take an assumption of chauvinism to consider the "ordinary connotation" or a word, and under what circumstances different meanings are assumed. If I say I was attacked by several men, and later said during a trial that my attackers were female, wouldn't that be considered a recantation? Or for that matter, would you consider it possible for two men to be married?
"All men may be saved" does NOT explicitly declare the possibility of salvation of women; it includes it as one of two possible interpretations, and catechesis has to clarify which is meant if there is a doubt. There are shadings of meaning in each translation. That is why I would prefer to see "Lover of mankind" or "Lover of man" rather than "Lover of men" as a translation, since the first two bear less possibility of confusion. "For us men" is like "Lover of men" - is is NOT clear on the face of it which meaning is meant, outside of the context of Christian teaching.
The general problem with "inclusive language" is less the translation itself, than the appearance that the translators are in agreement with others outside the fold whose beliefs are opposed to the teaching of the Church. Apart from this context, the argument over inclusive language has no more emotional traction than, say, whether to use "you" or "thou."
Yours in Christ, Jeff
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but it doesn't take an assumption of chauvinism to consider the "ordinary connotation" or a word, and under what circumstances different meanings are assumed. Thank you Jeff. ...yet our forefathers used these words for eons. What has suddenly changed? Could it be that the secular world has recently thrust a new connotation onto these terms? Should we listen to the secular world? (My cauvinist comment was somewhat tongue-in-cheek to drive home the point that there has suddenly been a change in understanding). If I say I was attacked by two men, and later said during a trial that my attackers were female, wouldn't that be considered a recantation? Or for that matter, would you consider it possible for two men to be married? I undrestand your point. But your analogy addresses the specific gender--the context is clear. "All men may be saved" does NOT explicitly declare the possibility of salvation of women; I feel that it does. "it is NOT clear on the face of it which meaning is meant, outside of the context of Christian teaching. Again, I feel that based on the "context", it is crystal clear (my opinion). Peace and blessings, Recluse
Last edited by Recluse; 05/29/07 09:31 AM.
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Dear Recluse,
I think you're oversimplifying by assuming "everyone knows the context".
If I am wondering for whom Christ suffered the Passion, and I am considering the entire universe - angels, animals, human beings - I can quite correctly see that "For us men" is a complete answer, in the same way that one might say "No animal did that, it was the work of man."
But if am considering only human beings to begin with, then "For us men" SOUNDS limiting. So if one said "I prefer to have men for employees, since they are more inventive", it is the IMPLICIT context (we are discussing humans) that indicates that "men" means "adult male human beings". If I were taken to task for such a statement, it would do little good to say "but men includes women, too!" - unless I could make a convincing argument that I was also hiring animals or rocks.
But the context is NOT always so clear. If a Muslim woman arrives in church and hears "For us men", she may KNOW that women are treated differently from men before Islamic law, and wonder if Christian salvation follows the same distinction. Unless context is provided by the speaker, the listener will derive one based on experience and state of mind.
The situation is made worse by
(a) a language which does not have separate single nouns for "human being" and "male human being"
(b) general lack of familiarity with languages that do make this distinction, leading to differing expectations between those who do have such familiarity and those who don't
(c) a practical presumption that individual human beings are THE loci of lived experience (which is itself at odds with much non-Christian environmentalism, but that's another topic)
So for the past few centuries, EVERYTHING is about human beings, and (to some extent) about subjectivity.
Saying "the context is clear" is NOT enough, since the person hearing the Creed believes himself entitled to (and does it fact have) his own context - one in which "I am a woman; a Muslim who says "Men are equal" does not include me in that statement; what do Christians believe?" will NOT have those concerns answered by hearing "For us men". It is not sufficient for you to say what is obvious, if it is only obvious to you!
So certainly we need catechesis, IN ORDER THAT the words we use make sense. That context must be GIVEN; it cannot be asssumed. How many Christians know what a "person" is, and that "person" is NOT the same as "human being"? What are we doing to change that?
Yours in Christ, Jeff
P.S. I agree that "inclusive language" is problematical, but it addresses a real issue which you seem to be side-stepping by claiming that the content of Christian teaching is SO well known that those hearing the Creed can assume it. That is more than a bit circular. Teach a universe that includes more than human beings, so that men (which includes woman and children) can understand their rightful place in it.
P.P.S. The real problem with "for us and for our salvation" is that it takes the problem with "for us men" and makes it WORSE. "
P.P.P.S. This still doesn't answer the question of who was offended by the old phrasing; or provide a justification for the particular choices made. Of all the changes in the new text, I think this is the issue that most merits a response; unlike the others (litanies, Royal Doors) one can't rely on precedent or tradition within the church.
Last edited by ByzKat; 05/29/07 11:37 AM.
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Dear Karl,
Thank you for your response.
It is certainly not my intention to �pour gasoline on the fire,� but it seems the only way to avoid this result would be to agree unequivocally to oppose any inclusive language. Some members have judged this decision a priori. Note your own statement, the �poison pill� of �controversial� bits of inclusive language. [I don�t know what you think about this, but I do not share the impression given by some posters that there is �nobody� that really supports �inclusive language� - at least, nobody in their right minds! - I say obviously there are some - and in their right minds! - who do support this decision.]
My position has been clear from the beginning - I favor some inclusive language because it is right and just that occasionally we should say explicitly that women as well as men are saved. The Council of Hierarchs has made this same decision. Their decision is magisterial for our church. My opinions are not. There is also no reason to believe that they made this decision only on my recommendation, and my opinion only shows up in isolated minutes of the IELC, and I have never argued the case before the Council of Hierarchs directly. Since the promulgation, I have spoken to the presbyterates of Parma and Passaic, and to some lay groups. In these presentations, I have spoken at the invitation of and at the request of individual bishops, and have given support to their decision. However, when I communicate on the Byzantine Forum, I speak only for myself and express only my personal opinions.
At these presentations, I have pointed out paragraph 29 of Liturgiam Authenticam, because it shows that the import of this document was not opposition to inclusive language as such, but for literal accuracy in translation. LA is a magisterial document of the Roman Catholic Church, but many members of the academic community have opposed it very strongly for various reasons. Cf., for example, Peter Jeffery�s Translating Tradition. Dr. Jeffery is a conservative, almost �traditional� Catholic, but is quite critical of the document. �Inclusive language� is not his main problem. Jeffery says (p. 105), �As I interpret LA, therefore, its main motivation is not opposition to inclusive language as such - that is only a symptom of what its authors really want. What they really want is a more profound sense of the sacred, an experience of connection to what seems age-old and eternal, uniting past and present in an unchanging rite that is above the ebb and flow of ordinary history.� Despite this, Dr. Jeffery holds that LA is deficient on many counts, which space does not permit me to summarize here.
I have been accused of not answering �Recluse�s� questions. In reality, I have answered them many times. I likewise do not think that this issue of translation has yet been adequately answered. We must remember that LA speaks to the universal Church, with its myriad linguistic traditions, but the English language, which lacks a �grammatical gender� has particular problems of translation. Like many anglophone church leaders - bishops and theologians - I believe the English term �men� is ambiguous enough to justify seeking a different translation so that the texts say what they mean - that all �human creatures� are saved by God�s saving activity and grace. Many posters on this Forum will judge my answer �inadequate.� I cannot help this. I only hope that they will admit that it is an answer, and �agree to disagree� on this point. Father David, Thank you for finally openly acknowledging that you reject Liturgiam Authenticam. You are a very good man. You are also very wrong. Let us all pray to the Lord that He strike down this disaster of a new Liturgy. 1 Th 5:21
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But if am considering only human beings to begin with, then "For us men" SOUNDS limiting. So if one said "I prefer to have men for employees, since they are more inventive", it is the IMPLICIT context (we are discussing humans) that indicates that "men" means "adult male human beings". If I were taken to task for such a statement, it would do little good to say "but men includes women, too!" - unless I could make a convincing argument that I was also hiring animals or rocks. In this secular example which you have provided, I am inclined to agree. But the context is NOT always so clear. If a Muslim woman arrives in church and hears "For us men", she may KNOW that women are treated differently from men before Islamic law, and wonder if Christian salvation follows the same distinction. Unless context is provided by the speaker, the listener will derive one based on experience and state of mind. I am left to wonder why our ancestors did not take into account the feelings of "the muslim women". Saying "the context is clear" is NOT enough It was enough for our ancestors and Church Fathers for centuries, so it is enough for me. a Muslim who says "Men are equal" does not include me in that statement; We are not muslim. I do not relate to your analogy. what do Christians believe?" will NOT have those concerns answered by hearing "For us men". It is not sufficient for you to say what is obvious, if it is only obvious to you! It is not just me! It is also obvious to every other Eastern Catholic "rite"--every Orthodox Church--and the Latin Catholic Church. It is only the Ruthenian Catholic Church that has suddenly deemed these words to be non-inclusive! So certainly we need catechesis, IN ORDER THAT the words we use make sense. That context must be GIVEN; Catechesis and context is always important. Let us use the Traditional language and begin this process for the few who may truly be confused by these words.  P.S. I agree that "inclusive language" is problematical, but it addresses a real issue which you seem to be side-stepping by claiming that the content of Christian teaching is SO well known that those hearing the Creed can assume it. That is more than a bit circular. I think it would be fairly well known after 17 centuries or so. I see nothing circular in that. P.P.S. The real problem with "for us and for our salvation" is that it takes the problem with "for us men" and makes it WORSE. Good point. P.P.P.S. This still doesn't answer the question of who was offended by the old phrasing; or provide a justification for the particular choices made. I agree. Thank you and God bless, Jeff Recluse
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But if am considering only human beings to begin with, then "For us men" SOUNDS limiting. So if one said "I prefer to have men for employees, since they are more inventive", it is the IMPLICIT context (we are discussing humans) that indicates that "men" means "adult male human beings". If I were taken to task for such a statement, it would do little good to say "but men includes women, too!" - unless I could make a convincing argument that I was also hiring animals or rocks.
But the context is NOT always so clear. If a Muslim woman arrives in church and hears "For us men", she may KNOW that women are treated differently from men before Islamic law, and wonder if Christian salvation follows the same distinction. Unless context is provided by the speaker, the listener will derive one based on experience and state of mind. Jeff might consider accepting the teaching of Rome on this issue. Even if Father David and the bishops reject it. I repost what I wrote earlier below: --Begin repost-- My basic premise is - "without extreme emotion" - that we should occasionally say explicitly that women can be saved too. I will add one reflection, many have cited Liturgiam Authenticam as being opposed to "inclusive language." LA is not opposed "ex professo" to inclusive language, but supports literally accurate translation. Cf. paragraph 29: "any prejudice or unjust discrimination on the basis of persons, gender, social conditions, race or other criteria ... has no foundation at all in the texts of the Sacred Liturgy." LA goes on to say that if exact literal translation can be misunderstood, it is the duty of the catechist and/or homilist to explain the text. Father David might consider that �who for us men and our salvation� already and specifically includes women. The intent of paragraph 29 becomes clear in paragraph 30. Here they are together: Liturgiam Authenticam:
29. It is the task of the homily and of catechesis to set forth the meaning of the liturgical texts,29 illuminating with precision the Church's understanding regarding the members of particular Churches or ecclesial communities separated from full communion with the Catholic Church and those of Jewish communities, as well as adherents of other religions and likewise, her understanding of the dignity and equality of all men.30
Similarly, it is the task of catechists or of the homilist to transmit that right interpretation of the texts that excludes any prejudice or unjust discrimination on the basis of persons, gender, social condition, race or other criteria, which has no foundation at all in the texts of the Sacred Liturgy. Although considerations such as these may sometimes help one in choosing among various translations of a certain expression, they are not to be considered reasons for altering either a biblical text or a liturgical text that has been duly promulgated.
30. In many languages there exist nouns and pronouns denoting both genders, masculine and feminine, together in a single term. The insistence that such a usage should be changed is not necessarily to be regarded as the effect or the manifestation of an authentic development of the language as such. Even if it may be necessary by means of catechesis to ensure that such words continue to be understood in the "inclusive" sense just described, it may not be possible to employ different words in the translations themselves without detriment to the precise intended meaning of the text, the correlation of its various words or expressions, or its aesthetic qualities. When the original text, for example, employs a single term in expressing the interplay between the individual and the universality and unity of the human family or community (such as the Hebrew word 'adam, the Greek anthropos, or the Latin homo), this property of the language of the original text should be maintained in the translation. Just as has occurred at other times in history, the Church herself must freely decide upon the system of language that will serve her doctrinal mission most effectively, and should not be subject to externally imposed linguistic norms that are detrimental to that mission. Or maybe Father David is accusing Rome of teaching that women are not saved because of Rome�s insistence on using only the term �men� in its official English translations of theological documents? Here�s more: Letter from Jorge A. Cardinal Medina Est�vez, Prefect, Congregation of Divine Worship, entitled Observations on the English-language Translation of the Roman Missal:
III. Examples of problems related to questions of "inclusive language" and of the use of masculine and feminine terms
A. In an effort to avoid completely the use of the term "man" as a translation of the Latin homo, the translation often fails to convey the true content of that Latin term, and limits itself to a focus on the congregation actually present or to those presently living. The simultaneous reference to the unity and the collectivity of the human race is lost. The term "humankind", coined for purposes of "inclusive language", remains somewhat faddish and ill-adapted to the liturgical context, and, in addition, it is usually too abstract to convey the notion of the Latin homo. The latter, just as the English "man", which some appear to have made the object of a taboo, are able to express in a collective but also concrete and personal manner the notion of a partner with God in a Covenant who gratefully receives from him the gifts of forgiveness and Redemption. At least in many instances, an abstract or binomial expression cannot achieve the same effect.
B. In the Creed, which has unfortunately also maintained the first-person plural "We believe" instead of the first-person singular of the Latin and of the Roman liturgical tradition, the above-mentioned tendency to omit the term "men" has effects that are theologically grave. This text - "For us and for our salvation" - no longer clearly refers to the salvation of all, but apparently only that of those who are present. The "us" thereby becomes potentially exclusive rather than inclusive. Rome has clearly stated that when we say �who for us men and our salvation� we include women. Jorge A. Cardinal Medina Est�vez, Prefect, Congregation of Divine Worship has clearly stated that �to omit the term "men" has effects that are theologically grave.� How could anyone not understand this clear teaching? Father David has been asked a number of times to respond to paragraph 30. He never responds. I ask him again to respond to paragraph 30 in the context of the explanatory letter of Cardinal Est�vez. Surveys among Catholics indicate that there is no demand for inclusive language in the liturgy. Accuracy is in. Agendas are out. The 1970s are gone. The Church has moved on from such things. --End repost--
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Don't count on any changes anytime soon. According to Fr. David and presumably the Bishops, this change is "right (proper) and just" -- to borrow a phrase from the Liturgy. The central argument, therefore, is not that some people might not understand the Creed or Liturgy. It's far more than that.
Since it is claimed that this is a matter of justice, ideas have been formed which run to the conscience of those who have made the decision to drop certain words because these words, and presumably those who use them, are "sexist." But since these changes are a distortion of the Creed, Liturgy and the Faith itself, they will fail. Sometimes failure takes a generation.
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