Hi Ray. Arthur here. I'm new to the board but am enjoying reading the various threads.
I am so pleased that you chimed in. Your philosophical training should help us all.
I trend to stay away from such labels as 'xxxxxx-ism' because they can be so unfair. As if everything had already been put to bed and there is nothing new - no new progress - no better understanding. It reminds me of modern life were one must be very careful talking to the opposite sex because people just seem to have an overpowering tendency put you into one category or another and tag you with s stereotypical label. �He is talking to her because he is a male pig � He is talking to her because he hates women .. He is talking to her because � etc..� it makes life so dead.
It seems a touch dehumanizing to me to imagine that there are only so many stereotypes and everyone must fit into one of them. I am NOT saying that you are doing this to me - I am just mentioning my aversion to stereotyping.
Now please do not take offense at my aversion to being put into boxes. I have not yet found a box I am comfortable in.
Can language capture experience? Can language convey intended meaning? The classic answer is that yes language does convey, even if imprecisely, an intended meaning.
I would agree with this somewhat. They keyword is �does convey� and I would have it say �can convey�.
And at times it does convey a precise meaning. For example � if you were about to cross the street and I yelled �STOP!� - I would think you would freeze and stop movement. I intended a precise meaning and you received that precisely. Certainly you have experienced such a moment.
If it seems as if I was saying that language can not convey intended meaning - I do not think I was saying that. (perhaps I need to re-read what I wrote). But I was certainly saying that there is no
necessity to it. In other words: language does not
necessarily convey intended meaning.
Q: But does language ALWAYS convey the intended meaning?
(If it does - there would be that necessity to language.)
A: No. Not always.
As you will note if you re-read my posts - I say that infallibility exists in the intended meaning. As far as the signs (spoken or written) some will receive the intended meaning and some will not. Some will have another meaning - which they will believe is the real meaning but it is not the intended meaning.
Let us do a though experiment:: You are a priest. You gather about yourself 100 Catholics from your congregation. Now - let us take an Infallible pronouncement - let us take the one from the Papal letter Unum Sanctum. It is very short and comes at the end of the letter.
Furthermore, we declare, we proclaim, we define that it is absolutely necessary for salvation that every human creature be subject to the Roman Pontiff.
And now have every one write down the meaning of that statement in one paragraph. All 100 Catholics. � Do you believe that everyone of the 100 will write down the exact same (or even very near) meaning??
In this particular case it would be a good bet that most people would write something similarly - and to the effect that it means that all men of all times must submit to the authority of the Pope - in order to be saved. Even if this was said in varied wording - it would seem that the majority �got it�. No one would ask how it could be that Moses (who died well before any Pope) could be under the Roman Pontiff? Or how Abraham could have been under the Roman Pontiff? was under the Pontiff? Elisha - Enoch - taken into heaven - perhaps they were under the Roman Pontiff in some mysterious way that has not been explained to us?? Perhaps we should just believe it - and not ask �how?�
But NOW put the letter (Unum Sanctum) into context - it is a personal letter to King Philip of France - prompted by the occasion of Philip threatening to do - in France - what had already been done in England (the king of England had ripped its Catholic population and churches away from the Pope and had made himself head of the church - The Church of England). Philip was threatening to do the same (create a Church of France with himself as its head). And NOW we can understand why the Pope precedes his Infallible declaration - with a scriptural history of how terrestrial power (kings) are established by spiritual powers (God) and not the other way around (�Therefore whoever resists this power thus ordained by God, resists the ordinance of God�). Which means that Philip can not be a valid head of Church. Philip - is a terrestrial power - not a spiritual power - it is impossible that Philip appoint himself to an office of spiritual power. That is just not the way it works.
The keyword �salvation� had always been used by Councils to indicate the set of sacraments. They have the power of salvation - when they are valid. Therefore - as regards the creation of a �Church of France� (this IS the context) - the Pope declares that it is absolutely necessary for the sacraments to be valid (have the power to save) that the church (people and property in France) remain under the Roman Pontiff.
An Infallible statement on one sentence - YES - but directly intended for Philip (not addressed to the entire universal church) and directly in the context of Philip�s contemplation of separating from the Pontiff - creating a �Church of France� - and making himself its spiritual head.
To end the experiment - I ask you - did the Infallible declaration you read to the 100 Catholics (�Furthermore, we declare, we proclaim, we define that it is absolutely necessary for salvation that every human creature be subject to the Roman Pontiff.) did it
by necessity (without fail) � convey to all 100 Catholics the correct intended meaning that Pope Boniface had directly intended to give to King Philip?
Of course not. In the very least there will be some trouble with a concept of �every human being ever born - must submit to the Roman Pontiff� and this will make answers vary from person to person.
And even the majority would have received an off the target meaning because they did not have the context of it being the summary line (a summation) of the purpose of the histographical part before it.
Let us now consider if the 100 Catholic - had been 100 people of different faiths � how would each receive it?
This proves that there is no
necessity that words and language does convey intended meaning. It CAN - but not by necessity.
[quote]
As religious believers, there is something fundamental about our belief that weighs heavily in favor of positivism--the opposite of skepticism.
[quote]
Perhaps. And perhaps (to use a sterotype) this positivism is (at some point and some occasion) just as much a problem as skepticism - is. Do we need - any - of these �isms�? Must we all toe the line of an ism? Is there liberty from �isms�? (of course I would answer - yes).
Back to Infallibility. Perhaps it is positivim - that makes it so hard for us religious people to grasp what is really so simple and plain to even common sense.
An Infallible statement - can not be infallible by way of words and language - but only by way of intended meaning - and can only said to be �infallible� if the �pass is completed� (the receiver actually does receive the intended meaning).
One last try ::: If something is Infallible it is also immutable. Because if it does change - it can only change to fallible.
Q: Can immutable truth (a particular meaning) be fully contained within words and language (things of the senses) when the container (or vehicle) which are words and language is not immutable (does change)?
Now please listen good Father � you should not assume (if you are or anyone else is) that I am putting all Infallible statements by Peter - to zero. That is not the case here. Nor am I attacking Peter (my Bishop and the Patriarch that Providence has put me under). But CLEARLY - reality displays - that Infallible statements which would seem to be judicial descisions binding upon the universal Church - are NOT binding upon every church. What smoke and mirrors (positivism?) makes us believe that the Orthodox are bound by all of them? Do we SEE the Orthodox being bound? No we don�t. IF they WERE bound - they WOULD be accepting and doing them. And we know that is not the case. So why do we say the universal Church is bound - when they are NOT all bound?
If I were to tell you that there are ten men inside a room � and you went into the room and found five men � would you come out of the room and say �There ARE ten men in the room!�
You are a priest - you do not have the same liberty that I have (I am no one and have no authority and no responsibility to speak as directed). You do not need to answer any of my questions.
May peace be to our church. May Peter be - once again - a visible sign of unity. My our eyes be upon Providence and our ears be ever attentive to our conscience where God writes his will with his own finger.
Please mention me (silently) at the moment of consecration.
-ray