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It sometimes seems that because the Eastern Catholic Churches and the Latin Church differ so much with regard to dogma that we profess two different faiths. Do you think that we really two different religions claiming to be in communion with one another? I am especially interested in the opinions of Eastern Catholics whose faith is identical or nearly identical to the Eastern Orthodox.

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We do not differ on a single iota of dogma, i.e. things which we all believe together as Catholic Christians. However, our theology is quite different, and we find different ways of expressing the SAME holy and orthodox Faith.

Alexis

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I am certainly not trying to sound polemical. Just trying to sort some things out. There are Eastern Catholics, even Patriarchs, who deny the immaculate conception, papal infallibility, purgatory, indulgences, the filioque as dogmatic truth, etc. The Latin Church teaches that these are infallible truths that cannot be denied except under the pain of mortal sin.

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At the risk of being imprudent and suffering the ire of many on this board (all of whom I respect but many of whom I disagree with), it doesn't matter whether or not there are Catholics who deny these beliefs. Indulgences, purgatory, and the Filioque are one thing, in my opinion, and we express the same truth in different ways, as I said. Take "purgatory" for example. The only thing the Catholic Church "dogmatically" teaches about it is that it is a place where sins are somehow done away with before a soul enters Heaven, and that prayers are efficacious for these souls. That's it. The rest is non-dogmatic speculation ("theologoumena") on the part of both East and West.

Papal Infallibility and the Immaculate Conception are slightly more complicated, I think.

Anyway, it doesn't matter whether there are Eastern Catholic, patriarchs or not, who've denied Catholic beliefs. There are also Roman Catholics who deny these truths of the Faith, from cardinals on down. No big difference there.

Alexis

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We must not forget that the so-called 'Oriental Churches' differ from both the Western Churches (Roman Catholic and Rum Orthodox) in their expression of the Faith.

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We should also remember that indulgences as understood by most people is muddled.

And on the Immaculate Conception, would most people agree that the Augustinian West uses a term that does not strictly go against Eastern Orthodox teaching, but is unnecessary based on a difference in the understanding of original sin?

As a forum we seem to keep spinning on the same issues with no marked accord as new people come in and ask the same questions over and over again.

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Originally Posted by Logos - Alexis
At the risk of being imprudent and suffering the ire of many on this board (all of whom I respect but many of whom I disagree with), it doesn't matter whether or not there are Catholics who deny these beliefs. Indulgences, purgatory, and the Filioque are one thing, in my opinion, and we express the same truth in different ways, as I said. Take "purgatory" for example. The only thing the Catholic Church "dogmatically" teaches about it is that it is a place where sins are somehow done away with before a soul enters Heaven, and that prayers are efficacious for these souls. That's it. The rest is non-dogmatic speculation ("theologoumena") on the part of both East and West.

Papal Infallibility and the Immaculate Conception are slightly more complicated, I think.

Anyway, it doesn't matter whether there are Eastern Catholic, patriarchs or not, who've denied Catholic beliefs. There are also Roman Catholics who deny these truths of the Faith, from cardinals on down. No big difference there.

Alexis

Alexis,

Good point. And I would add that were we to take an inventory of potentially disputes points of theology and spirituality, we would need to distinguish between those items that really are a matter of controversy and those items that are not.

Joe

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Is it me or was not the filioque issue resolved to the satisfaction of all Catholics at the Councils of Florence & Lyons?


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You really don't want to go there...not on this Forum!

Alexis

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Dear Friends,

The point is that when we have different theological traditions, we have different points of departure and perspectives.

East and West above said that EC's and EC Patriarchs "deny" the Immaculate Conception etc.

But IF the Latin West continued to understand Original Sin as the East has always understood it, then would the Latin Church even needed to declare the Immaculate Conception dogma? Not at all.

IF the Latin Church's Trinitarian/Triadological tradition was the same as that of the East, would it have needed to make a point regarding the inclusion of the Filioque? Not at all.

If the Latin Church's eschatology were the same as that of the East, would it have felt the need to posit a "purgatory" with indulgences, the treasury of merits etc.? Again, no.

And if the Latin Church maintained the same Eucharistic theology with respect to the Church as the East does - the role of the Petrine Minister would be less defined in terms of jurisdictional character and infallibility.

Florence actually developed an alternative LATIN view of the Filioque (passive Spiration from the Son, "Through the Son" - with the proviso that the Filioque's inclusion was unnecessary for the "Greeks"). The Greeks at Florence, it should be remembered, were under orders from their emperor to achieve church unity as a precondition for military support against the Turkish threat (which proved more than just a threat).

The Union of Florence was a capitulation of the Greeks to Latin demands, albeit dressed in "Eastern format," which did nothing to resolve the longstanding issues dividing East and West.

Eastern Catholics became Latinized in time, theologically and liturgically, but it can be argued that the Latinization occurred the moment the various acts of union with Rome were signed by the various Eastern Church parties.

And even if we EC's went "back" to the terms of the original "unias" that united us with Rome, we would still profess a Latinized Triadology et al.

At best, we may hope to maintain the fullness of the Eastern liturgical tradition (not a small feat given various conditions in various Particular Churches as we see even here). But without the concomitant Easternization of our theology, we remain what the Orthodox have always said we were - "Latins with outward Eastern forms."

Those EC's or "Orthodox in communion with Rome" who have studied the matter in depth and who, today, profess the fullness of Orthodox faith with respect to, well, everything, and who define their relationshiop with Rome as one of "communion," have yet to have their position acknowledged as legitimate by either their Church authorities or by Rome.

Archbishop Zoghby came closest in his public declaration to the above - and if Rome's reaction to him is any indication, "Orthodoxy in communion with Rome" where those who profess this identity are "in all things Orthodox and are in communion with Rome" remains the personal commitment and even "experiment" of specific EC individuals, hierarchs and parishes.

Alex

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Alex said:But IF the Latin West continued to understand Original Sin as the East has always understood it, then would the Latin Church even needed to declare the Immaculate Conception dogma? Not at all.

IF the Latin Church's Trinitarian/Triadological tradition was the same as that of the East, would it have needed to make a point regarding the inclusion of the Filioque? Not at all.

If the Latin Church's eschatology were the same as that of the East, would it have felt the need to posit a "purgatory" with indulgences, the treasury of merits etc.? Again, no.

Alex,

We Latins are proud of our theology and ecclesiology. It is just as much a part of Catholic patrimony as is Byzantine ecclesiology and theology. Are you denying us our right to prize and value our traditions as they have developed? They are not somehow inferior to the Byzantine perspective. Pope John Paul II exhorted us to "breathe with both lungs." Dumping all over our Western theological patrimony as the Holy Spirit has seen fit to develop it seems uncharitable, if not a little arrogant as well.

It's not a one-way street.

Alexis

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Dearest Alexis,

At no time have I denied the Latin Church anything or levelled the charge of inferiority etc. And I hope I'm not uncharitable or arrogant, but only others can make that interpretation.

The question here, as I understand it, is about the differences between East and West. I simply tried to contrast the Latin vs the Byzantine viewpoints in history.

Both have different approaches - to point them out does not mean to downplay one or the other.

The RC tradition developed a view of Original Sin that seemed to later "require" the Immaculate Conception. Kallistos Ware said, in his "Orthodox Way," that if he accepted the "stain of Original Sin," then he, too, would want an Immaculate Conception to exempt the Mother of God from it.

That is simply pointing out the differences without judging any tradition.

Another poster suggested that EC's denied the Immaculate Conception etc. thereby implying that it is WE who are deficient by "Catholic" (read "Latin") standards.

That is also what prompted me to write response, even though my left hand has a needle in it and doing so causes me pain . . . sniff . . .

So don't be too quick to impute motive . . . do you have Ukrainian in your background? smile

Alex

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IF the Latin Church's Trinitarian/Triadological tradition was the same as that of the East, would it have needed to make a point regarding the inclusion of the Filioque? Not at all.

It is my understanding that the filioque was inserted mainly to combat Arianism in Spain. The Visigoths, who had taken over much of the Iberian peninsula (not to mention Gaul), had adopted Arianism and forced it upon the Latins.

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Another poster suggested that EC's denied the Immaculate Conception etc. thereby implying that it is WE who are deficient by "Catholic" (read "Latin") standards.

I do not know much about other Eastern Catholics, but the Ukrainians do call the feast the Immaculate Conception (rather than the Conception by St. Anne of the Most Holy Theotokos). However it is on the Eastern date--December 9.

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Dear Byzantophile,

Yes, but then why did the West insist on keeping it in and then insist that the East acknowledge and accept the (Western) theology that was behind it? Clearly, the inclusion of the Filioque went beyond any local perceived need to combat Arianism (and Arianism was defeated in the East and without ever touching the issue of the Filioque).

In the UGCC, Patriarch Josef Slipyj returned the name of this feast as "The Conception of St Anne" and some calendars include the "Immaculate Conception" in brackets following it.

This is one of those Latinizations that crept in and that we are called upon, as Eastern Catholics, to correct, as Patriarch Josef the Hieroconfessor certainly did. (Also, many Ukrainian Catholic parishes in the US celebrated this feast on the Latin feast for whatever reason and have now returned to Dec. 9th)

Alex

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Yes, but then why did the West insist on keeping it in and then insist that the East acknowledge and accept the (Western) theology that was behind it? Clearly, the inclusion of the Filioque went beyond any local perceived need to combat Arianism (and Arianism was defeated in the East and without ever touching the issue of the Filioque).
Because this was decided at the Fourth Lateran Council, the Second Council of Lyons, and the Council of Florence, which are considered and �cumenical councils.

As usual I defer to the Catholic Encyclopedia of 1913:

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It has been seen that the Creed of Constantinople at first declared only the Procession of the Holy Ghost from the Father; it was directed against the followers of Macedonius who denied the Procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father. In the East, the omission of Filioque did not lead to any misunderstanding. But conditions were different in Spain after the Goths had renounced Arianism and professed the Catholic faith in the Third Synod of Toledo, 589. It cannot be acertained who first added the Filioque to the Creed; but it appears to be certain that the Creed, with the addition of the Filioque, was first sung in the Spanish Church after the conversion of the Goths. In 796 the Patriarch of Aquileia justified and adopted the same addition at the Synod of Friaul, and in 809 the Council of Aachen appears to have approved of it.

The decrees of this last council were examined by Pope Leo III, who approved of the doctrine conveyed by the Filioque, but gave the advice to omit the expression in the Creed. The practice of adding the Filioque was retained in spite of the papal advice, and in the middle of the eleventh century it had gained a firm foothold in Rome itself. Scholars do not agree as to the exact time of its introduction into Rome, but most assign it to the reign of Benedict VIII (1014-15).

The Catholic doctrine was accepted by the Greek deputies who were present at the Second Council of Florence, in 1439, when the Creed was sung both in Greek and Latin, with the addition of the word Filioque.
Thus, it is seen as something already believed in the ealy church.

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In the UGCC, Patriarch Josef Slipyj returned the name of this feast as "The Conception of St Anne" and some calendars include the "Immaculate Conception" in brackets following it.
The modern UGC Prayer-book, published by the Basilians, that I recently bought at the UGCC Cathedral here still has it listed as "The Immaculate Conception". As well, the local parish near me calls the feast such. In addition, the UGCC' Cathedral here in Philadelphia (built in the 1960s) is "The Cathedral of the Immaculate Conception".

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This is one of those Latinizations that crept in and that we are called upon, as Eastern Catholics, to correct, as Patriarch Josef the Hieroconfessor certainly did. (Also, many Ukrainian Catholic parishes in the US celebrated this feast on the Latin feast for whatever reason and have now returned to Dec. 9th)
Sadly, I think the reason was to conform to the Latin date. It has been the custom, in the past, of Latin Catholics in this country (just as in Roman Catholic countries) to take off from work in order to celebrate the holiday. Perhaps it was felt that the feast could more properly be observed if the date was moved.

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