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In the immortal words of Pope Leo III, illud de Symbolo tollatur!


But the filioque is an addition, not a taking away.

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Second, do BC's accept double procession even though we do not accept the use of the filioque and if we do not are we in heresy?


To speak of a "double procession" is both theologically inaccurate and unfortunate. If we accepted a "double procession," we would be in heresy. The Treaty of Brest, which is found in the document section of this site, states:

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1.—Since there is a quarrel between the Romans and Greeks about the procession of the Holy Spirit, which greatly impede unity really for no other reason than that we do not wish to understand one another—we ask that we should not be compelled to any other creed but that we should remain with that which was handed down to us in the Holy Scriptures, in the Gospel, and in the writings of the holy Greek Doctors, that is, that the Holy Spirit proceeds, not from two sources and not by a double procession, but from one origin, from the Father through the Son.


The most western of western theologians, Thomas Aquinas, would have no difficulty with this treaty. He writes in the Prima Pars:

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Therefore, because the Son receives from the Father that the Holy Ghost proceeds from Him, it can be said that the Father spirates the Holy Ghost through the Son, or that the Holy Ghost proceeds from the Father through the Son, which has the same meaning.


Quoting the authority of St. Augustine, he also writes:

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Augustine says (De Trin. v, 14) that the Father and the Son are not two principles, but one principle of the Holy Ghost.

I answer that, The Father and the Son are in everything one, wherever there is no distinction between them of opposite relation. Hence since there is no relative opposition between them as the principle of the Holy Ghost it follows that the Father and the Son are one principle of the Holy Ghost.





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In the immortal words of Pope Leo III, illud de Symbolo tollatur!


But something has been removed from the Creed of the RDL! cry

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Catholic Gyoza
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Really? What?
confused

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Really? What?
Man oh man open your eyes and see! cool

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Catholic Gyoza
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I first went very irregularly to a UGCC liturgy that was half in Ukrainian. Then my regular worship was in the BCA that was apparently using the RDL, it was in a different city and was a year ago. Now I have been stuck with a Novus Ordo parish that is meh at best.

So please inform me. smile

* yes it is a real word, it was just included in the dictionary.

Last edited by Dr. Eric; 12/31/08 02:45 AM. Reason: syntax
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Originally Posted by Serge Keleher
Even an out-and-out papist would have difficulty claiming that the Pope has the authority to change the Credo - because the Pope quite certainly accepted the Council of Chalcedon. In the immortal words of Pope Leo III, illud de Symbolo tollatur!

Fr. Serge

But do they have the right to add to a Creed without a Council? That is what is contended on the Defenders' Board. Does the authority of the Pope based upon Papal Infallibility give him such authority or is this just an extrapolation by some ultramontanists? Is this as big an impediment to any future reunion as I think it is? Why is this not an impediment to our continued union?

CDL

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Sounds like the Pope of Rome could indeed make more additions to the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed. Not that the Holy Father would do this, but the power of universal jurisdiction enables such an action...


The Dogmatic Constitution from Vatican I
"Pastor Aeternus"

Session 4 : 18 July 1870

Chapter 3.
On the power and character of the primacy of the Roman Pontiff

1. And so, supported by the clear witness of Holy Scripture, and adhering to the manifest and explicit decrees both of our predecessors the Roman Pontiffs and of general councils, we promulgate anew the definition of the ecumenical Council of Florence [49], which must be believed by all faithful Christians, namely that the Apostolic See and the Roman Pontiff hold a world-wide primacy, and that the Roman Pontiff is the successor of blessed Peter, the prince of the apostles, true vicar of Christ, head of the whole Church and father and teacher of all Christian people.

To him, in blessed Peter, full power has been given by our lord Jesus Christ to tend, rule and govern the universal Church.

All this is to be found in the acts of the ecumenical councils and the sacred canons.

2. Wherefore we teach and declare that, by divine ordinance, the Roman Church possesses a pre-eminence of ordinary power over every other Church, and that this jurisdictional power of the Roman Pontiff is both episcopal and immediate. Both clergy and faithful, of whatever rite and dignity, both singly and collectively, are bound to submit to this power by the duty of hierarchical subordination and true obedience, and this not only in matters concerning faith and morals, but also in those which regard the discipline and government of the Church throughout the world.

Source: http://www.fisheaters.com/pastoraeternus.html

Question: When this document refers to the Church, is it just the Church of Rome? Or is this document referring to the Churches of Holy Orthodoxy too?

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Yet, if it is true that an Ecumanical Council has promulgated this can it be that this pronouncement gives a Pope the power to override the decision of a Council once that decision has been supported by a Pope? This is the question for which I cannot find an answer.

CDL

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I cannot see how the first millenium Church would ever countenance that the Pope of Rome could ever over turn or trump a dogmatic definition of an Ecumenical Council.

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Originally Posted by lanceg
I cannot see how the first millenium Church would ever countenance that the Pope of Rome could ever over turn or trump a dogmatic definition of an Ecumenical Council.

I can't imagine that either. I don't know why one would bother having a Council if it were. Very troubling.

CDL

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I cannot see how the first millenium Church would ever countenance that the Pope of Rome could ever over turn or trump a dogmatic definition of an Ecumenical Council.


Has a Pope has ever definitively declared that he could turn or trump a dogmatic definition? Could a Pope contradict the truth? To think that a Pope could contradict the truth is to misunderstand papal authority.

Cardinal Ratzinger (now Benedict XVI) put it this way in 1991:

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One can only comprehend the primacy of the Pope and its correlation to Christian conscience in this connection. The true sense of this teaching authority of the Pope consists in his being the advocate of the Christian memory. The Pope does not impose from without. Rather, he elucidates the Christian memory and defends it.... All power that the papacy has is power of conscience. It is service to the double memory upon which the faith is based and which again and again must be purified, expanded and defended against the destruction of memory which is threatened by a subjectivity forgetful of its own foundation as well as by the pressures of social and cultural conformity.


The entire talk can be found in the link below, and is well worth the read.

http://www.ewtn.com/library/CURIA/RATZCONS.HTM

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Za myr z'wysot ...
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Originally Posted by AMM
... [The Agreed Statement of the North American Orthodox-Catholic Theological Consultation of October 25, 2003] document [usccb.org] not only called for a return to the Greek text of 381 as the standard but said
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that the Catholic Church, following a growing theological consensus, and in particular the statements made by Pope Paul VI, declare that the condemnation made at the Second Council of Lyons (1274) of those “who presume to deny that the Holy Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father and the Son” is no longer applicable.
AMM,

Thanks for that link. I had read this document a few years ago, but at the time I didn't realize the momentous nature of this recommendation: it is actually nothing less than a call for the RCC to decree that the Second Council of Lyons (1274) is non-ecumenical. shocked

For Catholics who regard this council as ecumenical, and its decrees therefore dogmatic and unreformable, this could be a major problem.

Originally Posted by lm
Has a Pope has ever definitively declared that he could turn or trump a dogmatic definition? Could a Pope contradict the truth? To think that a Pope could contradict the truth is to misunderstand papal authority.

With regard to the addition of the filioque, this could be explained as a "clarification" of the dogma of 381; with regard to declaring 1274 to be non-dogmatic, it would be hard to beat the rap of contradicting established dogma. cry

Peace,
Deacon Richard

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I've been under such an attack on the Defender's Board by some of the members there that I've decided just to back off and not share our perspective on ecumenical councils, the authority of popes, and Filioque. Thanks for the help. We will keep trying until we can no longer carry on. But this avenue is for now closed.

CDL

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A wise decision.

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