|
Forums26
Topics35,525
Posts417,642
Members6,178
| |
Most Online4,112
Mar 25th, 2025
|
|
|
|
Joined: Dec 2005
Posts: 44
Member
|
|
Member
Joined: Dec 2005
Posts: 44 |
I am trying to understand what was meant when Jesus exclaimed those words. Did the Father and Holy Spirit withdraw from Him? Was He who had been with them eternally, for a time, truly alone? Thanks for any help  
|
|
|
|
|
Joined: Jun 2006
Posts: 1,285
AthanasiusTheLesser Member
|
|
AthanasiusTheLesser Member
Joined: Jun 2006
Posts: 1,285 |
I think the best explanation is that he was quoting one of the Psalms, I believe Psalm 22.
Ryan
|
|
|
|
|
Joined: Nov 2005
Posts: 4,518
Catholic Gyoza Member
|
|
Catholic Gyoza Member
Joined: Nov 2005
Posts: 4,518 |
I have heard theologians and apologists say that many times when one wanted to quote a Psalm, he would just proclaim the first line. They say that He was showing that the Psalm was about Him.
|
|
|
|
|
Joined: Feb 2002
Posts: 2,505
Member
|
|
Member
Joined: Feb 2002
Posts: 2,505 |
Well if you want a theological opinion.
God is indivissible and can never be not God.
So in that sense to your question. NO.
Neither is God passible able to suffer, but Jesus being truly God and perfect Man in a perfect union experienced suffering for sin and the alienation that sin brings with God.
Hope this helps.
There was an interesting book by a German Lutheran theologian Jurgen Moltmann, called the God who suffered.
Stephanos I
|
|
|
|
|
Joined: Dec 2005
Posts: 44
Member
|
|
Member
Joined: Dec 2005
Posts: 44 |
Just want to say thanks everyone I have heard theologians and apologists say that many times when one wanted to quote a Psalm, he would just proclaim the first line. They say that He was showing that the Psalm was about Him. Interesting, thanks Well if you want a theological opinion.
God is indivissible and can never be not God.
So in that sense to your question. NO. Indeed, upon further thought, if the Father and Holy Spirit were effectively not with Jesus, He wouldn't have been God anymore... and that is impossible... Neither is God passible able to suffer, but Jesus being truly God and perfect Man in a perfect union experienced suffering for sin and the alienation that sin brings with God.
Hope this helps. So Jesus experienced suffering for the alienation sin brings, but not the alienation itself, correct? There was an interesting book by a German Lutheran theologian Jurgen Moltmann, called the God who suffered. Thanks, I'll look for it
|
|
|
|
|
Joined: Feb 2002
Posts: 2,505
Member
|
|
Member
Joined: Feb 2002
Posts: 2,505 |
I think the point was that as God-Man Jesus was the source of feeling also alienation, since God cannot suffer it had to be through the Man Jesus that God experienced it.
If this makes sense.
Stephanos I
|
|
|
|
|
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 221
Member
|
|
Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 221 |
Somewhat makes sense,yes, only as much as any of us can really understand the hypostatic union. A very good meditation.
|
|
|
|
|
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839
Member
|
|
Member
Joined: Jan 2008
Posts: 839 |
On Great and Holy Friday,in reference to the sun darkened, the hymns say that creation suffered with the Creator. This phrase is the Creator suffering with creation.
|
|
|
|
|
