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Originally Posted by StuartK
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The Catholic response to visions is to ignore them, and let them affirm and confirm the Orthodox Faith. The Vatican response is to put them front and center, and let them become the axis of the faith.
That's pretty much a crock, you know.

No, I don't. I know quite the opposite.

Originally Posted by StuartK
And, if you really knew Catholic Church history, you would recognize that the hierarchy is usually pulled, not pushed, by popular devotions.

I'm quite aware of that: hence why I find no solace that poll after poll that I see of followers of the Vatican show the majority oppose this "fifth Marian dogma" of "Co-Redemptrix." That history you allude to shows time and again how the teaching condemned as heresy yesterday, through today's popular devotions, becomes tommorrow's dogma.

For instace, the IC. What to do when Bernard of Clairveaux thoroughly denounced it when it first appeared? Visions.

Quote
The Virgin Mary described her Immaculate Conception to Saint Bridget [d. 1373].

“And it is a truth that I was conceived without original sin, and not in sin; because, as my Son and I never sinned, so no marriage was more holy than that from which I was born.” [14]

Here the Virgin Mary is telling us that she was preserved free from all sin and all tendency to sin. She adds the phrase “and not in sin” because her Immaculate Conception was completely virginal, occurring solely by a miracle of God and within her parents’ complete purity of body, heart, mind, and soul. The Virgin Mary says that she was born from the marriage of her parents, because both Saint Joachim and Saint Ann are her true, biological parents and her immediate ancestors, even though she was conceived solely by a miracle of God.

The Virgin Mary also said to Saint Bridget:

“A golden hour was my conception, for then began the principle of the salvation of all, and darkness hastened to light. God wished to do in His work something singular and hidden from the world, as He did in the dry rod blooming. But know that my conception was not known to all, because God wished that as the natural law and the voluntary election of good and bad preceded the written law, and the written law followed, restraining all inordinate notions, so it pleased God, that His friends should piously doubt of my conception, and that each should show his zeal till the truth became clear in its preordained time.” [15]

http://www.catholicplanet.com/virgin/virginity-Jesus-Mary.htm#N14

Then that vision of Bernard appearing in a white robe, with a black spot on it, which he explains to be his denial of the IC.

And then
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This century of Marian devotion has also in a certain way woven close bonds between the See of Peter and the shrine in the Pyrenees, bonds which We are pleased to acknowledge.
The Virgin Mary herself desired this tie. "What the Sovereign Pontiff defined in Rome through his infallible Magisterium, the Immaculate Virgin Mother of God, blessed among all women, wanted to confirm by her own words, it seems, when shortly afterward she manifested herself by a famous apparition at the grotto of Massabielle. . ."[5] Certainly the infallible word of the Roman Pontiff, the authoritative interpreter of revealed truth, needed no heavenly confirmation that it might be accepted by the faithful. But with what emotion and gratitude did the Christian people and their pastors receive from the lips of Bernadette this answer which came from heaven: "I am the Immaculate Conception!"
It is therefore not surprising that it should have pleased Our Predecessors to multiply their favors toward this sanctuary.
In 1892 Leo XIII granted the proper Office and Mass of the feast "In apparitione Beatae Mariae Virginis Immaculatae," which his successor was to extend to the Universal Church a short time later.

http://www.newadvent.org/library/docs_pi12lp.htm

Btw,does the supreme pontiff's encyclicals carry with themselves an automatic nihil obstat imprimatur?

I'm sure that if Dr. Miravalle has his way (and eventually, given the past course of events), the teaching of Maximillian Kolbe on the semi-Incarnation of the Immaculata will be dogma some day. Which goes straight to your next comment:

Originally Posted by StuartK
When it does act on them, it is usually to restrain excesses of enthusiasm among the laity.

Indeed. But as we have seen with the IC, the Sacred Heart, the Immaculate Heart, etc., what can we expect of "the Sacred Heart of God the Father."

http://www.movingheartfoundation.com/SacredHeartOfGodTheFatherStoryOfThePainting.htm

Originally Posted by StuartK
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"ignorance you accuse Catholics of possessing about Orthodox doctrine." Care to cite something, just to refresh my memory?
See your own statement above regarding the role of Marian visions in Latin theology.

See the history above regarding the role of Marian visions in Latin theology.

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All you are doing is proving my thesis that some Orthodox cannot accept the legitimacy of any theological or spiritual expression that is not explicitly Byzantine. It doesn't even have to Latin--it could be Syrian, Coptic, Armenian or Assyrian. Whenever it had the chance, the Byzantine Church, aided and abetted by the Byzantine Empire, did its damnedest to impose theological, spiritual and liturgical uniformity in a manner that would have done Innocent III proud.

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Originally Posted by IAlmisry
Originally Posted by StuartK
And, if you really knew Catholic Church history, you would recognize that the hierarchy is usually pulled, not pushed, by popular devotions.

I'm quite aware of that: hence why I find no solace that poll after poll that I see of followers of the Vatican show the majority oppose this "fifth Marian dogma" of "Co-Redemptrix." That history you allude to shows time and again how the teaching condemned as heresy yesterday, through today's popular devotions, becomes tommorrow's dogma.

I don't know if it's bad form to question something that both of you agree on, but I'm not really clear on this distinction between being "pushed" by popular devotions vs. being "pulled" by them. Can someone spell it out a little?

Originally Posted by IAlmisry
And then
Quote
This century of Marian devotion has also in a certain way woven close bonds between the See of Peter and the shrine in the Pyrenees, bonds which We are pleased to acknowledge.
The Virgin Mary herself desired this tie. "What the Sovereign Pontiff defined in Rome through his infallible Magisterium, the Immaculate Virgin Mother of God, blessed among all women, wanted to confirm by her own words, it seems, when shortly afterward she manifested herself by a famous apparition at the grotto of Massabielle. . ."[5] Certainly the infallible word of the Roman Pontiff, the authoritative interpreter of revealed truth, needed no heavenly confirmation that it might be accepted by the faithful. But with what emotion and gratitude did the Christian people and their pastors receive from the lips of Bernadette this answer which came from heaven: "I am the Immaculate Conception!"
It is therefore not surprising that it should have pleased Our Predecessors to multiply their favors toward this sanctuary.
In 1892 Leo XIII granted the proper Office and Mass of the feast "In apparitione Beatae Mariae Virginis Immaculatae," which his successor was to extend to the Universal Church a short time later.

http://www.newadvent.org/library/docs_pi12lp.htm

I think you're giving us Catholics a little too much credit, if you think we're going to see that quote and automatically know its source. grin (For anyone who's wondering, I checked and it's from a 1957 encyclical of Pope Pius XII.)

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Originally Posted by StuartK
All you are doing is proving my thesis that some Orthodox cannot accept the legitimacy of any theological or spiritual expression that is not explicitly Byzantine.

Really? I thought he at least raised some good questions.

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Originally Posted by StuartK
All you are doing is proving my thesis that some Orthodox cannot accept the legitimacy of any theological or spiritual expression that is not explicitly Byzantine.


You mean Constantinopolitan? Not this Orthodox. I'm a firm supporter of the WRO , and love the Coptic,Syriac and Indian Churches.

Originally Posted by StuartK
It doesn't even have to Latin--it could be Syrian, Coptic, Armenian or Assyrian. Whenever it had the chance, the Byzantine Church, aided and abetted by the Byzantine Empire,

You mean the Ecumenical Patriarchate and the Empire of the Romans, no? Usually when this tale is woven, it is the Church which is aiding and abetting the state: we're all Caesaropapists out east, remember? LOL.


Originally Posted by StuartK
did its damnedest to impose theological, spiritual and liturgical uniformity in a manner that would have done Innocent III proud.

Yeah EP St. Photios sending out SS. Cyril and Methodius. Quite the Hellenizers.

That said, what you have said has an element of truth. But then this Orthodox confronts the Phanar, the Phanariots and their supporters on this often.

Btw, did you miss this?

Originally Posted by IAlmisry
Forget comparing the Vatican to the Orthodx East: compare it to Orthodox Rome. What Fatima existed before 1054? Who was the Bernadette of the first millenium in the West? What promises did the cults the like of the Sacred Heart make while the pope of Old Rome were in the Orthodox diptychs of the Catholic Church?

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Stuart, you are right about some of us. Does that mean that if some one takes a western position and slaps a Byzantine label on it that we will accept it? I doubt it.. you know what they say about a gift horse!

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Stuart, you are right about some of us. Does that mean that if some one takes a western position and slaps a Byzantine label on it that we will accept it? I doubt it..

One might want to look at the "Pseudomorphosis", as it was called by Lossky, Meyendorff and Schmemann: the entire thrust of Orthodox theology was latinized for three hundred years, particularly in Russia, where catechetical instruction was based on Jesuit models, scholastic methods and categories were applied to Orthodox beliefs, and instruction in the theological academies was conducted in . . . Latin.

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Originally Posted by IAlmisry
Originally Posted by StuartK
And, if you really knew Catholic Church history, you would recognize that the hierarchy is usually pulled, not pushed, by popular devotions.

I'm quite aware of that: hence why I find no solace that poll after poll that I see of followers of the Vatican show the majority oppose this "fifth Marian dogma" of "Co-Redemptrix." That history you allude to shows time and again how the teaching condemned as heresy yesterday, through today's popular devotions, becomes tommorrow's dogma.

There's a lot that could be said about this so-called "fifth Marian dogma". I just want to mention that the article "Not Fifth, Not Final, Not Yet A Dogma", written by Ronald L. Conte Jr. (whose website you quoted earlier btw), argues quite convincingly that the "fifth" in that phrase doesn't make a lick of sense.

http://www.catholicplanet.com/CMA/not-fifth-not-final.htm

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So far as I can tell, there is no such thing as a Marian dogma, since dogma only pertains to matters affecting theology proper. In that sense, any Marian doctrine that is "dogma" is actually a Christological doctrine expressed through beliefs about Mary. And of those, there is only one dogmatic statement about Mary: that she be known as Theotokos, affirmed by the Council of Ephesus (431). Other beliefs about Mary, such as her perpetual virginity and perpetual sinlessness, have never been truly "dogmatized", yet are part of the fabric of the Tradition; their main importance is not what they say about Mary, but about her Son.

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Originally Posted by StuartK
So far as I can tell, there is no such thing as a Marian dogma, since dogma only pertains to matters affecting theology proper. In that sense, any Marian doctrine that is "dogma" is actually a Christological doctrine expressed through beliefs about Mary. And of those, there is only one dogmatic statement about Mary: that she be known as Theotokos, affirmed by the Council of Ephesus (431).

I have to disagree with you there ... there are at least 2 others, the Assumption and the Immaculate Conception.

I say "at least" because (as Conte points out) there could be several others as well, depending on how one understands the term "dogma".

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That is old news, Stuart, and I was talking in the abstract. Blame peter the Great for that one.

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That is old news, Stuart, and I was talking in the abstract. Blame peter the Great for that one.

I do blame him. Yet his baleful influence lives on, and the reaction in some "traditionalist" Orthodox circles to "modernists" like Meyendorff, Schmemann, Lossky, and more contemporary theologians like John Zizoulis and Olivier Clement indicates that not all Orthodox are actually receptive to a fully Byzantine approach to theology.

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Originally Posted by StuartK
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That is old news, Stuart, and I was talking in the abstract. Blame peter the Great for that one.

I do blame him. Yet his baleful influence lives on, and the reaction in some "traditionalist" Orthodox circles to "modernists" like Meyendorff, Schmemann, Lossky, and more contemporary theologians like John Zizoulis and Olivier Clement indicates that not all Orthodox are actually receptive to a fully Byzantine approach to theology.

What is "a fully Byzantine approach to theology"?

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Read Meyendorff's Byzantine Theology, Schmemann's Introduction to Liturgical Theology, and Lossky's Mystical Theology of the Orthodox Church, and find out for yourself.

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Originally Posted by StuartK
Read Meyendorff's Byzantine Theology, Schmemann's Introduction to Liturgical Theology, and Lossky's Mystical Theology of the Orthodox Church, and find out for yourself.

I've read them all and more, and a cursory search in them of the term "Byzantine" give no indicateion what you can possibly mean by the term, particularly in the "full" form of its approach.

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