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#394557 05/20/13 10:22 AM
Joined: Oct 2003
Posts: 1,132
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What do you folks think about the notion:
"Could Christ Who is God have been subject to death, or did he die only because He willed to die?"

I've seen this question on Catholic and Orthodox forums alike over the years. In the Coptic Tradition, the question has a definite answer, and is a very basic tenet of Christology - because Christ shared in our human nature, he was subject to death.

It makes me wonder why the question still very often comes up (at least on the I-net). Is it a dogma in other Churches? I mean, it is obviously a dogma that Christ shared in our human nature. The question of whether He was subject to death, however, seems to still be "up in the air" on the popular level. On the other hand, why is the matter still open to question? What are folks being taught in catechesis?

Can one maintain open doubt about this matter and still call him/herself Orthodox and Catholic?

I hope this discussion will lead to a more general discussion on dogma/dogmatization. Does a teaching need to be formally dogmatized by the Church in order to have dogmatic status? My impression as an Orthodox (icwR) is "NO." On the basis of that impression, can the more recent Mariological dogmas of the Catholic Church be regarded as actual impediments to unity?

I have more thoughts which I hope to flesh out if this thread progresses (hopefully).

Blessings,
Marduk

Joined: Oct 2003
Posts: 1,132
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Btw, folks, the reason I am interested is because this question was settled in a local Coptic Synod waaay back when (4th or 5th century). So this is a dogmatic matter to Copts (i.e., it is heretical to say that Christ died only because he willed to die, and not because he was subject to death), but may not be so to other Churches(?).

Blessings,
Marduk


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