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Originally Posted by Orthodox Catholic
Dear Todd,

Did not the Pope of Alexandria have "immediate jurisdiction" over every bishop and church in Christian Africa?

In fact, he did.

In addition, are you saing the Moscow Patriarch is not a bishop who has jurisdiction over all the bishops under his omophorion?

Regardless of what the (very democratic-sounding) theory would say, Orthodox Patriarchates, like the Moscow Patriarchate, do indeed have a praxis very similar to that of the Pope of Rome.

The eccesiological theories aside, why don't we look at the concrete realities of how not only the papacy, but also a number of patriarchates in Orthodoxy are actually run.

And, please - until you become a full-fledged and true Orthodox Christian (which according to the canons of Orthodoxy means someone who is in actual communion with canonical, world-wide Orthodoxy) . . . you aren't going to convince me on the theory generated by books and articles.

As you know, I don't understand how someone with such a "bang on" understanding of Orthodox ecclesiology and Orthodoxy as a whole is prepared to live with a kind of indifferentism when it comes to being in actual communion with Orthodoxy (which ALONE defines a true Orthodox Christian).

That's an aside, but Orthodox Patriarchs do indeed "lord it over" their bishops. I've known several over the course of the last 30 years who could give you an earful!

So perhaps we should focus here on what a Petrine Primacy for the whole church could look like and of what benefit it would be to the Church.

Orthodox theologians like Fr. John Meyendorff (+memory eternal!) never had an issue of a Petrine Primacy and affirmed such was exercised by the Pope of Rome in the first millennium.

What did he and others like him mean by that?

Alex

Since you mention theologians like Fr. Meyendorff, I should point out that in Orthodox Ecclesiology, for the primate to act as locus of the synod's power, and to act swiftly (when necessary) without first consulting the synod is perfectly acceptable (Fr. Alexander Schmemann argues this, if I remember). Where we draw the line, however, would be the assertion that the primate's decision is irreversible or not contingent upon the approval of the synod, for at that point, the primate would become a bishop of bishops, exercising immediate jurisdiction over the entire metropolis/patriarchate/archdiocese, and the bishops would be like unto him as priests are unto bishops, completely dependent upon him for their faculties and priesthood.

Last edited by Cavaradossi; 09/12/13 09:51 PM.
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Originally Posted by Cavaradossi
What evidence is there that chorepiscopoi were full-fleged bishops and not a type of elevated priest given the faculties to ordain?

I must say, that there seems to be rather good evidence to the contrary, that they were not considered to be full-fleged bishops, since chorepiscopoi are only ever mentioned in the canons as ordaining presbyters and deacons (never bishops), and since the churches which preserve them in modern practice do not consider them to be bishops. They are also mentioned in the canons as having their faculties to perform certain acts (most especially the ordinations of presbyters and deacons) being dependent upon the bishop, which would not be true if chorepiscopoi were considered to be a type of bishop.
http://www.biblestudytools.com/hist...uncil-of-nice/excursus-chorepiscopi.html

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Originally Posted by Cavaradossi
Originally Posted by Orthodox Catholic
Dear Todd,

Did not the Pope of Alexandria have "immediate jurisdiction" over every bishop and church in Christian Africa?

In fact, he did.

In addition, are you saing the Moscow Patriarch is not a bishop who has jurisdiction over all the bishops under his omophorion?

Regardless of what the (very democratic-sounding) theory would say, Orthodox Patriarchates, like the Moscow Patriarchate, do indeed have a praxis very similar to that of the Pope of Rome.

The eccesiological theories aside, why don't we look at the concrete realities of how not only the papacy, but also a number of patriarchates in Orthodoxy are actually run.

And, please - until you become a full-fledged and true Orthodox Christian (which according to the canons of Orthodoxy means someone who is in actual communion with canonical, world-wide Orthodoxy) . . . you aren't going to convince me on the theory generated by books and articles.

As you know, I don't understand how someone with such a "bang on" understanding of Orthodox ecclesiology and Orthodoxy as a whole is prepared to live with a kind of indifferentism when it comes to being in actual communion with Orthodoxy (which ALONE defines a true Orthodox Christian).

That's an aside, but Orthodox Patriarchs do indeed "lord it over" their bishops. I've known several over the course of the last 30 years who could give you an earful!

So perhaps we should focus here on what a Petrine Primacy for the whole church could look like and of what benefit it would be to the Church.

Orthodox theologians like Fr. John Meyendorff (+memory eternal!) never had an issue of a Petrine Primacy and affirmed such was exercised by the Pope of Rome in the first millennium.

What did he and others like him mean by that?

Alex

Since you mention theologians like Fr. Meyendorff, I should point out that in Orthodox Ecclesiology, for the primate to act as locus of the synod's power, and to act swiftly (when necessary) without first consulting the synod is perfectly acceptable (Fr. Alexander Schmemann argues this, if I remember). Where we draw the line, however, would be the assertion that the primate's decision is irreversible or not contingent upon the approval of the synod, for at that point, the primate would become a bishop of bishops, exercising immediate jurisdiction over the entire metropolis/patriarchate/archdiocese, and the bishops would be like unto him as priests are unto bishops, completely dependent upon him for their faculties and priesthood.

Indeed, but reality does intrude upon "models." I know that RCC apologists could point to the operation of the Moscow Patriarchate and, for lack of a better word,the external "imperium" of the Patriarch himself as being not particularly distinct from that of the Vatican and the Pope. Of course, there is a distinction in that the Patriarch does not claim or possess any final teaching authority over matters of Faith as we Orthodox view (and object to) the the Pope' s claimed role as defined by Rome's history and codified by Vatican I. Also, in a final "end game", any Orthodox Synod could, and has ,deposed more than a few primates and patriarchs of their national Church.

In simpler terms, while an Orthodox Primate or Patriarch may appear as a "mini pope", in the end, should push come to shove, he is but one Bishop in a synod of equal bishops. (At least in theory.)

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Dear brother in Christ!

I'm not trying to be an apologist for anyone here (indeed, I would prefer if there were one (autocephalous, particular) Ukrainian Orthodox Church with its centre in Kyiv rather than the church jurisdictions, including the UGCC, that we have now).

Clearly, His Holiness the Patriarch of Moscow respects the jurisdictions of the ROC bishops and metropolitans in communion with him.

At the same time, he is a powerful prelate whose word is law.

That's just the way it is. And that is just the way it should be.

The bishop's power is absolute, to be sure. At the same time, there seems to be a tendency here, with Todd, yourself and DMD, to suggest that somehow there isn't anyone higher in jurisdictional authority in Orthodoxy above the local bishop.

I don't pretend to understand the ecclesiologial intricacies involved here, but the fact remains that authority is authority, when and how it is exercised. The only Orthodox jurisdictions where the Patristic model/theory you are advancing/recalling here are very small jurisdictions.

But to say that Orthodox Metropolitans and Patriarchs, including Orthodox Archimandrites and Ihumens, exercise an authority that is somehow different in terms of its "iron fist in the velvet glove" approach from that of the RC hierarchy is tenuous at best!

It also turns a blind eye to the real authority that is currently exercised by RC national episcopal conferences where Rome prefers not to get involved in their local matters without being first invited.

There is an ongoing devolution of powers in the RC Church. And even the UGCC goes ahead and acts without Rome's approval (within the context, I suppose, that it is always easier to ask for forgiveness than for approval).

In short, when His Holiness the Patriarch of Moscow acts, we can speculate all we want afterwards regarding synodal approbation, that he isn't acting as a bishop of bishops and the like. smile

I hope Todd becomes in actuality what he is in spirit - an Orthodox Christian. After that, once he is over his "convert phase" :), I hope he becomes ordained to the Priesthood and sees for himself what life is really like in the hierarchy.

Something tells me that he will find there is a distinct difference between theoria and praxis in ecclesiology!

Alex

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Dear DMD,

Fair ball, sir!

But papal teaching authority, even in the ultra-montanist, imperious, Papalist Church smile is, theoretically, tied to affirming apostolic tradition, rather than inventing it (and there is a disagreement on that score too, as I am led to believe . . .).

Pope Pius XII did not proclaim the dogma of the bodily Assumption into heaven of the Most Holy Virgin Mary until he received responses from the world's Catholic bishops first (who responded well over 90% in favour of the proclamation).

There is no reason why, at a future union Council, if we get to that point ever, that Council cannot define "papal infallibility" as being tied to the decisions of an Ecumenical Council (only).

So when the pope, together with all other bishops, East, West, North and South, signs the decrees of a truly Ecumenical Council of the Church, which refers to the totality of the Bishops, then those decrees can be said to express the indefectible mind of the Church,, the Body of Christ which is led by the Holy Spirit.

And that Council could also affirm what the parameters are, jurisdictionally, for the Petrine Primacy as exercised by the Bishop of Rome, historically and within a future reunited Church.

I am UGC, but I'm open to a redefinition of papal primacy and agree, right now, with Archbishop Zoghby's affirmation in that regard (although that too illustrates a wide chasm between theory and actual praxis).

Not insurmountable, but tricky nonetheless.

Alex

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Originally Posted by Orthodox Catholic
Dear brother in Christ!





I hope Todd becomes in actuality what he is in spirit - an Orthodox Christian. After that, once he is over his "convert phase" :), I hope he becomes ordained to the Priesthood and sees for himself what life is really like in the hierarchy.

Something tells me that he will find there is a distinct difference between theoria and praxis in ecclesiology!

Alex

All time BEST observation EVER on any Eastern Christian - Orhodox or Greek Catholic - forum regarding ecclesiology!

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Alex: Regarding the power of Bishops, I shall paraphrase Orwell to clarify my understanding of the Bishop in Orthodoxy. " All Bishops are equal, but some (usually one in each Church) is more (much more) equal than the others."

This underscores why our academics are able to come to common ground on many matters regarding the Papacy and primacy...but the devil literally is in the details and within just what universal jurisdiction means.

Look, last summer, my new Orthodox Bishop, upon his election by our priests' conference (ironically as promised to our people under both Brest and Ungvar) was required to present himself to the EP, to affirm his loyalty to the Patriarchal see and to receive the ratification of his election. I'm not naive and I recognize that the same held true when the UGCC elected your current primate - except he didn't stop at the Dardenelles. However, not all ECC churches have the power and numbers to call their own shots. For example, if the clergy of the long vacant see of the Greek Catholic Eparchy of Passaic were to convene and elect a Bishop - well, we probably know how that would work out.

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Dear DMD,

Thank you sir! You know, I've sometimes thought the Administrator should have some sort of an award for this kind of thing . . . smile

Alex

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Dear DMD,

Your post reminds me of the time I went to my Bishop, Kyr Isidore Borecky (memory eternal!) to ask him if I could be a married priest . . .

He said, "You worry about your studies . . . and I'll worry about marrying you . . ."

As it turned out, I worried about both.

Alex

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Dear brother Todd,

Quote
I know that the authors of the Vatican I decree intended the use of the term "episcopal" to be a good thing, but - as it is with many Roman clarifications (e.g., the notion of the Father and Son being one principle in the procession of the Holy Spirit) - it merely adds to the problems, because from an Orthodox perspective it really means that there are two bishops in every diocese. Moreover, it also means that the bishop of Rome - seeing that his ordinary and immediate episcopal authority extends into every diocese - is a bishop of bishops, and that notion is completely unacceptable to the Orthodox.
No, it does not mean that there is a "bishop of bishops." It means that there is "head bishop" with unique responsilibities and concurrent prereogatives to carry out those responsibilities. That's easily amenable to traditional Orthodox ecclesiology.

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The novel notion of "successorship" in the sense you describe is not found in the writings of the Church Fathers.
Really? I imagine that St. Irenaeus' list of successors for particular sees was just a strange and unique item in the history of the Church. Such lists can be discarded, according to your ecclesiology, and have no meaning because there is no such thing as unique successorship. So much for Tradition. The Low Petrine novelties seek to topple Traditional ecclesiology every bit as much as Absolutist Petrine ecclesiology.

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The bishop of Rome holds the same office as every other bishop,

Of course. I'll make sure to point out to my Copti Orthodox friends that the Patriarch of the Russian Orthodox Church is really also the Patrairch of the Copts. I'll also point out to them that the Coptic Pope has no right to confirm his brother bishops because all bishops are absolutely equal in all ways. And why wait for the Holy Myron from the Patriarch? Forget it! That's just a novel system introduced by those interested in making one bishop ontologically different from other bishops. Etc. Etc. No distinction in office, gotcha.:)

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and he is not the sole (or the unique) successor of St. Peter in the Church.
No one here has said otherwise.

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Clearly, the Roman West and the Orthodox East view these matters differently, and that does not bode well for the restoration of communion.
I recognize that Low Petrine and Absolutist Petrine advocates have little in common with Tradition. The two extremes will never meet and will always be a source of disunity for the Church as long as they exist.

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The historic successions of various Church founders is a pious tradition (and it has sometimes helped to indicate which sees should have a higher rank - although Ephesus lost out to Constantinople and so rank is really not determined by who founded a particular Church), but it has no ontological or sacramental significance. To put it another way, Rome, Antioch, and Alexandria, the three historic petrine sees that St. Gregory the Great describes as one see in three places, do not have ontological priority over any other episcopal sees.
Who said otherwise?

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Nor do their historical claims equate to dogma or revealed truth.
Agreed.

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The primacy of Rome (or of Antioch and Alexandria for that matter) is not a divinely revealed dogma; instead, it is an historical development that came to be established through the ecumenical councils of the Church, and the same can be said of the Pentarchy.
Primacy is a divinely revealed dogma. I agree that its particular phenotypes have been conditioned by God-directed history.

Originally Posted by Apotheoun
Originally Posted by mardukm
To be perfectly clear, the only thing that Pastor Aeternus claims is that the bishop of Rome is the sole successor in the primacy of St. Peter.
That is an interesting personal interpretation of the document, but the document itself does not say that.
Personal interpretation? That is what the Decree on the Primacy exactly states ad dictum! Canon: Therefore, if anyone says that it is not according to the insitution of Christ our Lord Himself, that is, by divine law, that St. Peter has perpetual successors IN THE PRIMACY over the whole Church, or if anyone says that the Roman Pontiff is not the successor of St. Peter IN THE SAME PRIMACY...

There is NOTHING there that states that the bishop of Rome is the only successor of St. Peter. It is the myopic reading of the Vatican decrees by detractors, on the one hand, and the extravagant reading of the same decrees by Absolutist Petrine exaggerators, on the other, with the concurrent popular misconceptions and bad impressions that these erroneous misinterpretations cause, that is the source of our division.
NOTE: I did not include the "Let him be anathema." in the citation above because the Eastern and Oriental Fathers, as well as several Western Fathers at Vatican 1, while agreeing with the content of the Canon, requested that an anathema should not be attached to it. I have hope that in a future Ecumenical Council, the anathema on that Canon, which is wholly orthodox in content, will be removed.
VERY IMPORTANT NOTE: If one reads the Canon on the Primacy fairly, one will realize that the document does not make the ROMAN primacy per se (as distinct from Primacy itself) part of divine revelation. In fact, the matter that is divinely revealed is in a separate clause than the statement on the Roman primacy. The only thing that the Council explicitly stated was divinely revealed - in the words "according to the testimony of the Gospel" in another place, and "according to the insitution of Christ" in the Canon itself - was the perpetual succession in the Primacy. The Canon does NOT include the ROMAN succession per se as part of the divinely revealed dogma. This fair and true reading will no doubt have important repercussions for ecumenical dialogue.

I think the mistake people often make is that they assume an anathema is what makes a teaching a dogma. This is false. An anathema is simply a disciplinary measure. The thing that makes a particular teaching a dogma is the explicit statement that the particular teaching is divinely revealed. Hence, while the IC and the Assumption are considered dogmas in the Catholic Church, neither of those were asserted with anathemas (hence, also my hope that a future Ecumenical Council will remove the anathemas from the above-cited Canon, in agreement with the request of the Eastern, Oriental, and Western Fathers at Vatican 1 who made that appeal).

One will notice that while the Decree on Primacy never actually states that the ROMAN succession is divinely revealed, this misinterpretation is in fact the basis for many complaints by detractors of the papacy (as evinced by brother Todd's own comments). This simply demonstrates what I have stated previously - the rejection of the Catholic dogmas are more often than not based on imposing notions on it that they do not actually teach.

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Moreover, I reject the notion that Rome is the "sole successor in the primacy"
There can only be one primate in any level of the hierarchy. Show us otherwise from Tradition. Does Alexandria have two or more head bishops? Does the Russian Church have more than one Patriarch? Does a Metropolitan See have more more than one Metropolitan head? Where can you go to find support for your novel claim?

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and in rejecting that notion I am merely siding with Pope St. Gregory who saw primacy invested in all three of the major historic petrine sees.

There can only be one primate in any level of the hierarchy. That is the very definition of primacy. Though Pope St. Gregory asserted that the three Sees share a Petrine Succession and share the primacy in relation to the whole Church, within that special grouping, it cannot be doubted that Rome also has the primacy.

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Once again I am compelled to remind you of the fact that the primacy of Rome is not a divinely revealed truth nor is it a dogma; instead, it is a human custom that was established over time by the Churches in their ecumenical dealings with each other.
This statement merely demonstrates, again, that you are imposing notions on the Vatican 1 Decree that it does not contain. See above.

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The sooner Rome abandons the novel claims put forward at Vatican I and Vatican II the better.
Rather, the sooner people stop reading the Vatican Decrees according to their unjustified misinterpretations, the sooner unity will occur.

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Postscript: Mardukm's innovative interpretation of the decree Pastor Aeternus reminds me of his equally novel interpretations of St. John Chrysostom's text On the Priesthood where he saw the bishop of Rome, and his supposed headship, mentioned practically on every page - I exaggerate of course - but needless to say the bishop of Rome is not mentioned in that book.
All I remember is that you accused me of it, even though that was not what I did. My only purpose for bringing up St. John's text was to demonstrate the existence of Primacy in the Church, and that this primacy was/is inhereted from the model of the Apostles who had St. Peter as their head. You often do that, brother Todd - impose notions on the statements of others to pretend you have made an argument against that statement.

Quote
I know the Roman Catholic bishops at Vatican I taught that the pope's ordinary immediate episcopal jurisdiction is a safeguard to the authority of the bishops in general, but that is simply not how the Orthodox understand episcopal authority. There is no bishop of bishops who safeguards the authority of the "lesser" bishops (n.b., the whole idea of there even being "lesser" bishops is contrary to the nature of the episcopal office in Orthodoxy).
Can you please quote the exact text from Vatican 1 that states that other bishops are "lesser" bishops? I haven't seen it. Is this merely another example of your imposing notions on statements by others, notions that actually don't exist, in order to justify false arguments against those statements?

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The episcopal office is one priesthood and all bishops possess the same ontological status,
That's good, old Catholic ecclesiology.

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so there can be no bishop of bishops,

True. You are in fact the only one here who has made the claim.

Quote
nor can there be a bishop who has episcopal authority in every diocese in the world.

No bishop can have PROPER jurisdiction in every particular diocese in the world. But the care given by any bishop for a particular diocese, even if that care only comes about in extraordinary circumstances, is episcopal by its very nature. THAT is wholly orthodox and patristic, contrary to your claim. In fact, I recall an ancient Canon of Antioch that states a Metropolitan must care for the whole flock in his Metropolitan See. According to your interpretation, this means either that there are two bishops in each diocese within a Metropolitan See, or that the Metropolitan is the only true bishop and the rest of the bishops are mere priests. Your understanding is unduly polemic and plainly wrong, brother Todd.

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In fact, such a notion for the Orthodox involves turning all the other bishops - except for the primate - into presbyters, while also making them (i.e., the bishops reduced to presbyters by a false notion of primacy) into the primate's vicars.
Only according to your own understanding (and others who think like you, naturally), not according to patristic Tradition. The existence of a Patriarch who has real jurisdiction in his entire Patriarchal See does not make his brother bishops in the Patriarchate mere priests. The existence of a Metropolitan who has real jurisdiction in his entire Metropolitan See does not make his brother bishops in the Metropolitan See mere priests. Conclusively, there is no justification for claiming that the existence of a head bishop who has real jurisdiction in the entire Church makes his brother bishops mere priests. You really have no valid rationale for your claim, least of all on the basis of Traditional Orthodox ecclesiology. But your Low Petrine ecclesiology is not really Traditional Orthodox ecclesiology, is it, but is only an extreme reaction to the Absolutst Petrine excesses, as novel as the claims of those exaggerators?

Quote
Postscript: The decree Pastor Aeternus describes the pope's primacy as a form of "proper jurisdiction" and so you are clearly wrong when you say that Catholic theologians restrict the term "proper" to the local ordinary.

Here is what Vatican I says: "Therefore, if anyone says that blessed Peter the apostle was not appointed by Christ the lord as prince of all the apostles and visible head of the whole Church militant; or that it was a primacy of honor only and not one of true and proper jurisdiction that he directly and immediately received from our lord Jesus Christ himself: let him be anathema." [Pastor Aeternus, Chap. 1, no. 6]
That's another misreading of the text. I actually debated this text with an Absolutist Petrine advocate a few years ago back at CAF (as already often stated, Low Petrine and Absolutist Petrine advocates share the same exact premises about the papacy, though at cross-purposes). The Absolutist Petrine advocate attempted to use this excerpt to try to prove that the Pope has proper jurisdiction in every particular diocese in the Church. I pointed out to him that he made the mistake of presuming that "proper jurisdiction" (i.e., normative and regular rule) only refers to the local diocese. In fact, head bishops, unlike other bishops, uniquely have a proper authority in TWO spheres of jurisdiction (recall that having a unique prerogative does not mean one is separated from the body of bishops) - namely, (1) in what pertains to his own particular diocese, and (2) in what pertains to the entire jurisdiction of whom he is head. Hence, for example, a Metropolitan has proper jurisdiction (1) in what pertains to his own particular diocese, and (2) in what pertains to the ENTIRE Metropolitan See. However, he does not have proper jurisdicton in any other particular diocese. I pointed out to him that the excerpt (which you quote above) is very plainly referring to the "whole Church." Just as the Metropolitan has proper jurisdiction in what pertains to the whole Metropolitan See, and the Patriarch has proper jurisdiction in what pertains to the whole Patriarchal See, then the Pope of Rome has proper jurisdiction in what pertains to the whole Church --- HOWEVER, this does not mean that any of those head bishops has proper jurisdiction in any other particular diocese (except his own). The Absolutist Petrine advocate responded with silence. I would be interested to hear your thoughts on this proper (no pun intended) understanding of that excerpt from V1.

One thing this discussion has made starkly obvious to me is that Low Petrine advocates do not have a very good appreciation for the patristic Tradition on primacy. The Catholic Church, along with High Petrine advocates (from both the Eastern and Oriental Orthodox Communions), on the other hand, adhere to the patristic principle that primacy is an INHERENT feature of the episcopal order (this has been reflected in past Eastern Orthodox-Catholic colloquies, and is reflected in the ecclesiological reality of the Oriental Orthodox). That there is a bishop who holds a primacy, a primacy that comes with unique responsibilities, and unique prerogatives in order to uphold those unique responsbilities, by no means demeans their ontological equality. But Low Petrine advocates, for a reason I cannot fathom, consistenly interpret (or, rather, misinterpret) primacy in the most horrendous terms. Merely having unique prerogatives, to a Low Petrine advocate, is translated as absolute power that makes the bishop having those unique prerogatives somehow a "bishop of bishops" that must be rejected. That High Petrine advocates say that there is a bishop who can have care for the flock in a greater sphere of jurisdcition is automatically transalated as having "two bishops in a diocese" or that every other bishop is a mere priest in relation to their primate. Never mind that these same ecclesiological realities exist and have existed in the Orthodox Church from the very beginning. But that really only serves to demonstrate the novelty of the Low Petrine position, as dangerously inimical to Church unity as the excesses of their Absolutist Petrine counterparts on the other end of the ecclesiological spectrum.

Blessings,
Marduk

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Dear Cavaradossi,
Originally Posted by Cavaradossi
Originally Posted by mardukm
However, it is obvious that Orthodox ecclesiology (both Eastern and Oriental) also makes this distinction in practice, given the presence of auxiliary bishops (in the past, even chorepiscopi) in a diocese. So there can be more than one bishop of a diocese - it is just that there can only be one who regularly exercises rule in that diocese.
In addition to Apotheoun's comments, I feel that I should point out that Marduk's statement here is not in line with Orthodox ecclesiology. There is no such thing as an auxiliary bishop of a see. Auxiliary bishops in Orthodoxy, just as in Roman Catholicism are given titular sees (sees with no flock attached to them). They may function as suffragans, but they are in fact fully fledged bishops who just happen to have no flock in their own diocese, and so they exercise their sacramental powers within another diocese (which according to the ancient principles of canon law can only be done under the direction of the bishop who has jurisdiction within that diocese). We in no way recognize that there can be two bishops within a see, because suffragans are not the bishops of the diocese where they serve, nor are they able to serve in that place without the direction and permission of the local ordinary. To wit, only one may exercise immediate jurisdiction within any place. All others who exercise jurisdiction there only do so mediately, with the consent of him who has immediate jurisdiction in that place.
It seems that I as a Catholic, and you as an Orthodox, have the same understanding of what an auxiliary bishop is. My main point was that more than one bishop can serve a certain diocese - it is just that, there can only be one who has (in Catholic jargon) PROPER jurisdiction in the diocese, or (in Orthodox jargon) there can be only one who has ORDINARY jurisdiciton in the diocese (i.e., there can only be one bishop who has the normative and regular rule of the diocese). My statement (or least its intent) is perfectly in line with Orthodox ecclesiology - we just don't use the same language to describe it.

Blessings,
Marduk

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Dear brother Alex,

Originally Posted by Orthodox Catholic
There is no reason why, at a future union Council, if we get to that point ever, that Council cannot define "papal infallibility" as being tied to the decisions of an Ecumenical Council (only).
I am not certain I agree with it 100%, for the plain and simple fact that an Ecumenical Council normally deprives a local Church of its bishop for who knows what period of time. I am more inclined to agree with the idea that a college can act as a college, even when dispersed throughout the world. An infallible decree, if it is truly needed by the Church (not on the mere say-so of the Pope) should be able to be pronounced by the Pope even when the college is dispersed and cannot formally meet together for whatever reason. Comments?

On the idea of the collegial act, I would like to make an observation about Bishop Gasser's official Relatio. In one place (which I quoted in a previous post), he states that the Pope should approach the bishops as the normative means of aid if an issue comes to his attention that is really difficult. The utter irony of this is that Bishop Gasser simultaneously asserted that the Pope has the same resources as every other bishop, and that the bishops come to the Pope for help if there is an issue that they cannot handle. So whatever issue the bishops take to the Pope that activates (so to speak) an exercise of the Church's infallibility by the Pope would ALWAYS be an issue of such difficulty that the Pope would have to have recourse to the bishops for their aid. It seems Bishop Gasser was laying the groundwork for the idea that every ex cathedra decree is collegial by its very nature.

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And that Council could also affirm what the parameters are, jurisdictionally, for the Petrine Primacy as exercised by the Bishop of Rome, historically and within a future reunited Church.
I think more important is a whole paradigm shift on what "jurisdiction" means. "Jurisdiction" has traditionally, even among the Orthodox, been defined as a form of control, instead of a form of service. Our past two Popes (including the current one, no doubt), have consistently highlighted the need for redefining "jurisdiction" in terms of the biblical model proposed by our Master, Jesus Christ - i.e., as one who seeks to serve instead of lording it over others.

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I am UGC, but I'm open to a redefinition of papal primacy and agree, right now, with Archbishop Zoghby's affirmation in that regard (although that too illustrates a wide chasm between theory and actual praxis).
I recall reading from many non-Latin sources (and even some Latin ones) the observation (or complaint) that the prescriptions of V2 have not yet been fully put into practice as far as ecclesiology is concerned. At the very least, our hierarchs recognize that at least the doctrinal groundwork for a truly collegial working atmosphere (so to speak) does exist.

Blessings,
Marduk

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Does anyone know:
Whatever happened regarding that issue in the Eastern Orthodox Church of some Metropolitan making all his suffragan bishops auxiliary bishops? I think it happened in the U.S.? Is that still de facto the case in that jurisdiction, or was that Metropolitan ever corrected?

There are fears that such things could happen in the Catholic Church because of the Pope's (supposed) absolute power. Ironically, it has never happened in the Catholic Church, but it has happened in the Eastern Orthodox Church(?)(I'm not certain of the full details of that incident, which is why I put a (?) after my statement).

Blessings,
Marduk

Last edited by mardukm; 09/14/13 12:26 PM.
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Originally Posted by mardukm
Dear Cavaradossi,
Originally Posted by Cavaradossi
Originally Posted by mardukm
However, it is obvious that Orthodox ecclesiology (both Eastern and Oriental) also makes this distinction in practice, given the presence of auxiliary bishops (in the past, even chorepiscopi) in a diocese. So there can be more than one bishop of a diocese - it is just that there can only be one who regularly exercises rule in that diocese.
In addition to Apotheoun's comments, I feel that I should point out that Marduk's statement here is not in line with Orthodox ecclesiology. There is no such thing as an auxiliary bishop of a see. Auxiliary bishops in Orthodoxy, just as in Roman Catholicism are given titular sees (sees with no flock attached to them). They may function as suffragans, but they are in fact fully fledged bishops who just happen to have no flock in their own diocese, and so they exercise their sacramental powers within another diocese (which according to the ancient principles of canon law can only be done under the direction of the bishop who has jurisdiction within that diocese). We in no way recognize that there can be two bishops within a see, because suffragans are not the bishops of the diocese where they serve, nor are they able to serve in that place without the direction and permission of the local ordinary. To wit, only one may exercise immediate jurisdiction within any place. All others who exercise jurisdiction there only do so mediately, with the consent of him who has immediate jurisdiction in that place.
It seems that I as a Catholic, and you as an Orthodox, have the same understanding of what an auxiliary bishop is. My main point was that more than one bishop can serve a certain diocese - it is just that, there can only be one who has (in Catholic jargon) PROPER jurisdiction in the diocese, or (in Orthodox jargon) there can be only one who has ORDINARY jurisdiciton in the diocese (i.e., there can only be one bishop who has the normative and regular rule of the diocese). My statement (or least its intent) is perfectly in line with Orthodox ecclesiology - we just don't use the same language to describe it.

Blessings,
Marduk

I disagree. There can only be one with jurisdiction in one place. Anybody else who exercises any power within that area does so mediately, through the authority of him who has jurisdiction in that place.

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Originally Posted by mardukm
Does anyone know:
Whatever happened regarding that issue in the Eastern Orthodox Church of some Metropolitan making all his suffragan bishops auxiliary bishops? I think it happened in the U.S.? Is that still de facto the case in that jurisdiction, or was that Metropolitan ever corrected?

This has already been discussed. The synod of Antioch made the novel decision to turn its bishops into suffragans of the metropolitans, an ecclesiological monstrosity and aberration. But the synod still adheres to the proper principle that in one place, there can only be one with jurisdiction. The metropolitans have now jurisdiction over all of their respective metropolises, while the suffragans are only able to exercise their power and ministry through the jurisdiction of the metropolitan.

Originally Posted by mardukm
There are fears that such things could happen in the Catholic Church because of the Pope's (supposed) absolute power. Ironically, it has never happened in the Catholic Church, but it has happened in the Eastern Orthodox Church(?)(I'm not certain of the full details of that incident, which is why I put a (?) after my statement).

Blessings,
Marduk

No irony here, because the synod of Antioch, as aberrant as its ecclesiological move (only performed four years ago) may have been, did not establish a single bishop of bishops, but made it so that only the metropolitans of the synod of Antioch are bishops with any immediate jurisdiction—nor, it is worth pointing out, did it affirm that the metropolitans could have extraordinary immediate jurisdiction over their respective metropolises while the bishops simultaneously retain immediate jurisdiction over their respective dioceses; they correctly perceived that this is an either-or scenario, and accordingly turned the bishops into suffragans of the metropolitan.

Contrast this with the system in the Roman Church, where the Pope is the only one with universal, extraordinary and immediate jurisdiction. He can install, transfer, or depose any bishop at his good pleasure, and effect actions in any place without the consent of the local ordinary (think of Summorum Pontificum, for example, which was an exercise of the Pope's extraordinary and immediate jurisdiction). He is in effect, the only proper bishop in the world, a bishop of bishops who alone exercises true immediate jurisdiction in any place, while the other bishops can exercise jurisdiction in a place only as far as he allows them to do so. Just as with the case of the Synod of Antioch's shameful decision, we simple-minded Orthodox simply see things for what they are, and the truth of the matter is that from our own perspective the Pope in the Roman Catholic Church is both in potentiality and also in actuality (that is, whenever he elects to use his extraordinary and immediate jurisdiction to transfer, install, or depose a bishop, or to effect changes in a place, as was done with Summorum Pontificum) a bishop of bishops, who relates to all of the bishops in the world as bishop does to his auxiliaries, no matter what neat and convoluted distinctions are drawn up between ordinary and immediate, and extraordinary and immediate jurisdiction.

Last edited by Cavaradossi; 09/14/13 07:05 PM.
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