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Originally Posted by Epiphanius
[quote=JBenedict]To say that the scholastics get all their views from Augustine is ridiculous.

Indeed, it would be ridiculous. And that is not what the author says. He is much more cautious and nuanced.

Quote
the Scholastics even took and then distorted certain opinions of Blessed Augustine which did not belong to the common mind of the Church of the first millennium

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There were fewer Christians in the East, however.

At the same time, how does one count "Christians" in either East or West?

By how many are baptised after birth? What about in later life? What about forced baptisms, baptisms of people who became Christian because their royal leaders told them to be baptized?


Would we count as a Christian someone like Joseph Stalin? After all, he was an Orthodox seminarian.

Alex

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Pope St Gregory would still have insisted the Rome was first and ahead of the other two.

And which of his successors agreed with him or pronounced on what he said? It was his view which did not survive him.

Alex

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Originally Posted by Hieromonk Ambrose
Originally Posted by Utroque
Originally Posted by Hieromonk Ambrose
In the East 7 out of 10 were Christians.
In the West 3 out of 10 were Christians.

Is that your estimate, or is out of the 586 AD edition of "Annuario Pontificio"? Does this matter?
It came from reading although I do not recall the book. But it stayed in my mind as an interesting fact.

I am much more concerned that the separation of our churches hinders evangelization today. Pope St. Gregory, pray for us.

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Originally Posted by Orthodox Catholic
Would we count as a Christian someone like Joseph Stalin? After all, he was an Orthodox seminarian.

Given the Orthodox belief that the grace of Baptism and the indwelling of the Holy Spirit never fully leave even the greatest of baptized sinners, not until the moment of death, I think I would have to serve a Pannikhida for Stalin if requested by a parishioner.

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Excellent point, Utroque!

May I ask why you use that interesting moniker?

Alex

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Originally Posted by Orthodox Catholic
Excellent point, Utroque!

May I ask why you use that interesting moniker?

Alex

Utroque, the Latin word for "both"; my life has been immersed in both traditions for which I am grateful.

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Originally Posted by Hieromonk Ambrose
Originally Posted by Utroque
If only Rome had gotten rid of all that .....unleavened bread.
It would be a part of the movement "ad fontes."

CATHOLIC SCHOLARS SAY THAT THE CHURCH OF ROME USED LEAVENED BREAD
for the first 800 and more years
.

The change to unleavened bread in Rome took place towards the end of the first millennium.

Fr. Joseph Jungman -- in his The Mass of the Roman Rite -- states that:

"In the West, various ordinances appeared from the ninth century on, all demanding the exclusive use of unleavened bread for the Eucharist. A growing solicitude for the Blessed Sacrament and a desire to employ only the best and whitest bread, along with various scriptural considerations -- all favored this development.

"Still, the new custom did not come into exclusive vogue until the middle of the eleventh century. Particularly in Rome it was not universally accepted till after the general infiltration of various usages from the North" [Rome itself, conservative as always, did not change to unleavened bread until a few decades after the schism.]
~ JosephJungman, The Mass of the Roman Rite, volume II, pages 33-34


Fr. Jungman goes on to say that:

". . . the opinion put forward by J. Mabillon, Dissertatio de pane eucharistia, in his answer to the Jesuit J. Sirmond, Disquisitio de azymo, namely, that in the West it was always the practice to use only unleavened bread, is no longer tenable."

"Now, the fact that the West changed its practice and began using unleavened bread in the 8th and 9th century -- instead of the traditional leavened bread -- is confirmed by the research of Fr. William O'Shea, who noted that along with various other innovative practices from Northern Europe, the use of unleavened
bread began to infiltrate into the Roman liturgy at the end of the first millennium, because as he put it, "Another change introduced into the Roman Rite in France and Germany at the time [i.e., 8th - 9th century] was the use of unleavened bread and of thin white wafers or hosts instead of the loaves of
leavened bread used hitherto"
~ Fr. William O'Shea, The Worship of the Church, page 128

"Moreover, this change in Western liturgical practice was also noted by Dr. Johannes H. Emminghaus in his book, The Eucharist: Essence, Form, Celebration, because as he said:

"The Eucharistic bread has been unleavened in the Latin rite since the 8th century -- that is, it is prepared simply from flour and water, without the addition of leaven or yeast. . . . in the first millennium of the Church's history, both in East and West, the bread normally used for the Eucharist was ordinary 'daily bread,' that is, leavened bread, and the Eastern Church uses it still today; for the most part, they strictly forbid the use of unleavened bread. The Latin Church, by contrast, has not considered this question very important."
~ Dr. Johannes H. Emminghaus, The Eucharist: Essence, Form, Celebration, page 162

"Thus, with the foregoing information in mind, it is clear that the use of leavened bread by the Eastern Churches represents the ancient practice of the undivided Church, while the use of unleavened bread by the Western Church was an innovation introduced near the end of the first millennium."

Interesting. Is this the current scholarly consensus? (Do we find support for this from others besides Jungmann and O'Shea and Emminghaus?)

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[quote=JBenedict]Even if we grant, arguendo that the exclusive use of unleavened bread is that late (and even that says nothing about the common use of unleavened bread earlier), that something is a relatively late development is not enough to make it wrong per se.

This is kind of a silly thing to argue about, since in no serious way does it stand in the way of reunion. There are priests in the Russian Church who offered the Divine Liturgy with unleavened bread this very day in the "Western Rite".

I do not think that is right. In the Antiochian Orthodox Western Rite, they use leavened bread baked in such a way that they are virtually the same as the hosts used by the Western Rite. I think that they get the bread from Roman Catholic nuns.
I may be wrong, but I do not think that this matter became an issue until Western missionaries in Bulgaria criticized the Eastern Church for using leavened bread. After that the Eastern Church felt a need to defend its practices. A lot of the disputes come from the clash between East and West in Bulgaria.
I also do not think that if Eastern Orthodox and Catholics reached agreement on all other matters it would be a "church dividing" issue.

Fr. John W. Morris

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Originally Posted by Hieromonk Ambrose
Originally Posted by Orthodox Catholic
Would we count as a Christian someone like Joseph Stalin? After all, he was an Orthodox seminarian.

Given the Orthodox belief that the grace of Baptism and the indwelling of the Holy Spirit never fully leave even the greatest of baptized sinners, not until the moment of death, I think I would have to serve a Pannikhida for Stalin if requested by a parishioner.

If a person who was baptized Orthodox but was not practicing their faith died, I would bury them with the full Orthodox service from the funeral home, not the Church unless they joined another Church or renounced their Orthodox Faith. In that case, I would not do a funeral or Memorial service for them. I think that a very good case could be made that Stalin renounced his Orthodox Faith. However, if someone confessed on their death bed and received Communion, I would bury them as if they had been Orthodox all their life. We can do a funeral for someone who was not Orthodox with the blessing of the Bishop, but with a special service for the burial of non-Orthodox and in the funeral home, or at the grave. However, I commemorate any name that is given me by the person offering the Bread (Qurban) or someone asking for prayers during the Preparation of the Gifts, and the Great Entrance. I do not ask if they are Orthodox.

Fr. John

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Originally Posted by Hieromonk Ambrose
Originally Posted by JBenedict
This is kind of a silly thing to argue about, since in no serious way does it stand in the way of reunion.
It hasn't been discussed yet in the bilateral dialogue.
Quote
There are priests in the Russian Church who offered the Divine Liturgy with unleavened bread this very day in the "Western Rite".
Not really. It is absolutely forbidden for our Western Rite priests to use unleavened bread/hosts.

This is from an Antiochian Bishop:---

“The ancient question that continues to divide the Roman Catholic and Western Churches from the Orthodox Church regarding the use of leavened or unleavened bread in the Eucharist had to be resolved when the Western Rite parishes were received into the Orthodox Church. The host used in Western Rite liturgies resembles the unleavened wafer used by Roman Catholics and Episcopalians, but in fact it is leavened—although flattened—bread. The use of leavened bread in accordance with Orthodox theology, was required by Metropolitan Philip when he received these parishes into Orthodoxy.”

http://www.stgregoryoc.org/article/article-archive/metropolitan-isaiah-on-the-western-rite/

Actually it was Metropolitan Anthony Bashir who received the first Western Rite parishes into the Antiochian Archdiocese. I believe that they get their Communion Wafers from a group of Roman Catholic nuns.

Fr. John W. Morris

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Originally Posted by Utroque
"The seat of the Christian Universe had been fixed in New Rome, the City of Constantine." Reflections, Archpriest Phillip

I don't think St. Gregory I (540 - 604), Bishop of Rome, would agree with this. Is there anyone in the east at this time who can match this man's missionary outreach and zeal? Unformed, immature, even crude theological outlook, indeed. In four hundred years we'd have the even cruder St. Anselm of Canterbury, but no mention of him.

I am an Antiochian Orthodox Archpriest and I do not agree with Archpriest Philip. Before the schism, the East did recognize the Pope as having a primacy of honor as senior Bishop of the Church. Canon 28 of Chalcedon gave Constantinople equal not superior rank to Rome. The issue that divided East and West was not the primacy of Rome. The issue was what that meant. The East saw the Pope as having the same position that the Ecumenical Patriarch has in the Eastern Orthodox Church today. However, the Popes began to claim more and more authority for themselves until they transformed the primacy of honor to one of jurisdiction and even authority over an Ecumenical Council. This process took centuries and reached its climax at the 1st Vatican Council in 1870. When Rome attempted to exercise jurisdiction over the East, the result was the schism when the Eastern Patriarchs refused to surrender their historic rights to independence as recognized by Canon VI of the 1st Ecumenical Council.

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"To say that the scholastics get all their views from Augustine is ridiculous."

I agree. Scholasticism was mainly an effort to reconcile Christian theology with Aristotle. The West discovered Aristotle when they discovered his writings during the reconquest of Spain. Ironically they first read Aristotle from translations made from Arabic language texts. The East never lost Aristotle, so his works were not new to them. However, the Eastern Church restricted Aristotle to philosophy and science and never felt a need to reconcile Christian theology with Aristotle because the East has always considered human reason too limited to comprehend the mysteries of God.
Augustine was not consistent. At times he affirmed free will, other times he denied free will. The Catholic Church never lost the memory of the Eastern Fathers. Therefore, Catholic theologians never accepted Augustine's more extreme positions. However, that was not the case with Luther and Calvin who accepted Augustine's most extreme writings as the basis for their theology. Augustine himself realized that he had gone too far and at the end of his life wrote a series of retractions in which he moderated some of his positions.

Fr. John W. Morris

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Originally Posted by Fr. John Morris
"To say that the scholastics get all their views from Augustine is ridiculous."

I agree. Scholasticism was mainly an effort to reconcile Christian theology with Aristotle. The West discovered Aristotle when they discovered his writings during the reconquest of Spain. Ironically they first read Aristotle from translations made from Arabic language texts. The East never lost Aristotle, so his works were not new to them. However, the Eastern Church restricted Aristotle to philosophy and science and never felt a need to reconcile Christian theology with Aristotle because the East has always considered human reason too limited to comprehend the mysteries of God.
Augustine was not consistent. At times he affirmed free will, other times he denied free will. The Catholic Church never lost the memory of the Eastern Fathers. Therefore, Catholic theologians never accepted Augustine's more extreme positions. However, that was not the case with Luther and Calvin who accepted Augustine's most extreme writings as the basis for their theology. Augustine himself realized that he had gone too far and at the end of his life wrote a series of retractions in which he moderated some of his positions.

Fr. John W. Morris


Father, this is wonderful, but what is the point?

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Scholasticism was mainly an effort to reconcile Christian theology with Aristotle.
What that what Maximos the Confessor, Gregory Palamas and John Damascene were doing? Because all of them were scholastics.

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