Sorry to say, but I'm not buying that. Pope Benedict's motu proprio, Summorum Pontificum, impeded the ability of local bishops to determine whether the Tridentine Mass should be served within their dioceses. Do you contend that this was an abuse of papal power, or that the Latins somehow have misinterpreted Summorum Pontificum?
Agreed, brother Bob. Ever since this thread began, I was wondering why it is even in the "Faith and Theology" section in the first place. If you can suggest the appropriate forum, please do so because I would dearly love to respond to Cavadarossi's comment (a response which would, I believe, be outside the intended scope of this forum).
I came across the above two quotes in another thread. For the record, I tend to lean towards Marduk's interpretation of the papal primacy within the Catholic communion (with several slightly different nuances) and while I would love to hear his response to Cavadarossi's comment, I offer the following thoughts:
1) Pope Benedict did not impede the legitimate authority of the local bishops over their own flock for he argued that the Christian faithful have a right to be nourished by the ancient patrimony of the Latin Church; thus, it was not right for the bishops to deny the faithful their own patrimony. The Pope intervened for the good of the faithful, not on a whim.
2) Pope Benedict felt that certain local bishops were depriving those of their flock who had a particular and legitimate devotion to the older form of the mass, and thus felt the need to intervene for the good of the Christian faithful. Again, not on a whim.
3) I have never seen evidence that the MAJORITY of the episcopate forbade the Tridentine mass and opposed Summorum Pontificum...many bishops did, but that doesn't equate to a majority. Many bishops had granted permission for the TLM to be said in their dioceses long before SP and many bishops, in recent years, have even celebrated pontifical high masses themselves.
4) As Pope Benedict states in SP, the older form of the mass as promulgated by St. Pius V was never canonically abrogated, and thus, arguably, it was not lawful for bishops to forbid it outright in the first place.
I see this as a legitimate exercise of papal primacy for the good of the Christian faithful...not an usurpation of the legitimate rights of local bishops.