Dear Friends,
I've done a book report on "Celibacy in the Early Church" a while back . . .
The author DOES admit there were married priests "all over the place" in the West for the first millennium.
What he denies is that these married priests lived with their wives as husband and wife, but rather as brother and sister.
He provides NO evidence for his subjective bias in this matter WHATEVER.
In addition, the author shows complete ignorance of later Church law regarding married priests.
The principle of living as "brother and sister" may only apply to the laity.
The rule of celibacy, if such in fact were the case "since the 4th century" would mean that the priests had to get rid of their wives by sending them to a monastery or else agree to live apart, get an annulment etc.
If such a rule existed, then why the proliferation of married priests, as the author readily admits and can document?
Why have a wife then and be exposed to the temptation to, yes, commit the "sin under the bedcovers.
And, Pax Tecum, have you yourself begun dating?
Alex