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Joined: Aug 2005
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Since I am new here, I do not know if this subject has been discussed here before or not. I did a "search" and could not find any satisfying answers.
If it has been discussed, please excuse my being redundant. Maybe someone can direct me to the thread.
Why is there a �one number,� i.e. Psalm 135 (136), difference between the Psalms in certain versions of The Bible?
Thank you!
Ray Musicbear
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The chapters are organized differently in the Septuagint and the Masoretic Text. Most modern Bibles follow the numbering system of the Hebrew canon and not the Septuagint. Often there will be a note showing where the chapters diverge. What are Psalms 9 and 10 for instance in the Masoretic Text are one chapter in the LXX.
The Septuagint also has one Psalm (151) not found in the Hebrew Canon.
Andrew
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So, when you are quoting or refering to a certain Psalm, what number do you "usually" use?
Does one give both numbers, 135/(136)?
I guess one can easily be misqouted...
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Joined: Jun 2003
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When referring to a Psalm for Byzantine purposes or in a Byzantine context, one uses the Septuagint number (the lower number). If one feels the need to clarify, one adds (LXX) in parentheses or brackets.
Incognitus
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I see...
So, the lower number is the most common form of refering to a certain Psalm?
Thanks for the reply!
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From a traditional Orthodox or Catholic perspective, yes, using the Septuagint numbering is definitely proper, using Psalm 50, for example, instead of something like 51 (Masoretic) or 50/51. Why not just number as it is supposed to be in our tradition (Septuagint)?
There are some excellent English septuagint translations of the Psalms, such as the Psalter of the LXX by Holy Transfiguration Monastery or the Psalter published by the OCA in Canada.
DD
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