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#79748 09/24/03 02:19 AM
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I ask this question here only because I know we have a couple of history buffs. I ask this for my own personal edification and knowledge, not for any class.

Why is the same word used to describe an ancient Indo-European race and the "pure race" of the Nazis: Aryan?

Is there a relationship between the Aryans that (supposedly) invaded India thousands of years ago, and the German "Aryans"? If not, why is the same word used for both peoples?

Thanks a bunch!

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I am sure that others, far more erudite than I, can answer this question better; nevertheless I'll give you what I know.

The Nazi "mythos" was an attempt to link the modern German ethnicity with the ancient, "pure-blooded" race of Aryans that went over the Hindu Koosh from the North, and later dominated Europe. The Germans, it was argued, represented this pure stock, while other European races were somewhat mixed, and Jews were completely outside the pail because they were Semitic. (This was a false premise anyway, since the Jews in Germany at the time were 100% Ashkenazi)

Hope this helps.

LatinTrad

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As it happens, "Aryan" and "Arian" are not the same word. "Arian", derived from the proper name "Arius" designates the followers of Arius the heretic of that name. I neither know nor care the full signficance of the racist term "Aryan". The upshot of it all is that it is possible to be an Arian without being an Aryan, and it is possible to be an Aryan without being an Arian! Incognitus
P. S. on a more serious note, it's well to remember that there is no shortage of people who are in fact Arians, Docetists, Donatists, Gnostics, Monophysites, Nestorians and so on, even though few if any of these people are aware that they could legitimately style themselves with these exotic titles. Don't know if there are any Mithraists at the moment, but that was always a lot of bull.

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Incognitus:

What the heck are you talking about? My question has nothing to do with Arians.


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